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109 listings in all posts with a title or author like "Pharmacy exam"




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Which of the following glucagon‐like peptide‐1 receptor agonists (GLP‐1 RAs) is administered subcutaneously once daily? [Select ALL THAT APPLY].

a. Byetta
b. Adlyxin
c. Victoza
d. Trulicity
e. Tanzeum


Which of the following glucagon‐like peptide‐1 receptor agonists (GLP‐1 RAs) is administered subcutaneously once daily? [Select ALL THAT APPLY].

a. Byetta
b. Adlyxin
c. Victoza
d. Trulicity
e. Tanzeum

Answer (b,c)



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An immunofixation (IFE) blood test is used to identify which of the following types of proteins in blood? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. Albumin
 
b. Alpha-1 globulin
 
c. Alpha-2 globulin
 
d. Beta globulin
 
e. Gamma globulin


An immunofixation (IFE) blood test is used to identify which of the following types of proteins in blood? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. Albumin
 
b. Alpha-1 globulin
 
c. Alpha-2 globulin
 
d. Beta globulin
 
e. Gamma globulin

Answer: (a,b, c, d, e)
 
An immunofixation blood test, also known as protein electrophoresis, measures certain proteins in the blood. Proteins play many important roles, including providing energy for the body, rebuilding muscles, and supporting the immune system.
 
There are two main types of proteins in the blood: albumin and globulin. The test separates these proteins into subgroups based on their size and electrical charge. The subgroups are:
 

  1. Albumin
  2. Alpha-1 globulin
  3. Alpha-2 globulin
  4. Beta globulin
  5. Gamma globulin
 
Measuring the proteins in each subgroup can help diagnose a variety of diseases.


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Which of the following statements is/are TRUE ABOUT D-Dimer Test? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. A D-dimer test looks for trimethyl occulin in blood.
 
b. D-dimer is a protein fragment that's made when a blood clot dissolves in a body.
 
c. It is used to diagnose deep vein thrombosis.
 
d. The test is also known as fibrin degradation fragment.


Which of the following statements is/are TRUE ABOUT D-Dimer Test? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. A D-dimer test looks for trimethyl occulin in blood.
 
b. D-dimer is a protein fragment that's made when a blood clot dissolves in a body.
 
c. It is used to diagnose deep vein thrombosis.
 
d. The test is also known as fibrin degradation fragment.

Answer: (b, c, d)

A D-dimer test looks for D-dimer in blood. D-dimer is a protein fragment (small piece) that's made when a blood clot dissolves in a body. It is also known as a fragment D-dimer or fibrin degradation fragment test.
 
A D-dimer test is most often used to find out whether you have a blood clotting disorder. These disorders include:
 
1. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a blood clot that's deep inside a vein. These clots usually affect the lower legs, but they can also happen in other parts of the body.
 
2. Pulmonary embolism (PE), a blockage in an artery in the lungs. It usually happens when a blood clot in another part of the body breaks loose and travels to the lungs. DVT clots are a common cause of PE.
 
3. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a condition that causes too many blood clots to form. They can form throughout the body, causing organ damage and other serious complications. DIC may be caused by traumatic injuries or certain types of infections or cancer.
 
4. Stroke, a blockage in the blood supply to the brain.


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Which of the following is the first FDA-approved intravenous (IV) treatment for migraine prevention?
 
a. Imitrex
b. Relpax
c. Zomig
d. Cambia
e. Vyepti


Which of the following is the first FDA-approved intravenous (IV) treatment for migraine prevention?
 
a. Imitrex
b. Relpax
c. Zomig
d. Cambia
e. Vyepti
 
Answer: (e). 

The active ingredient found in Vyepti is Eptinezumab-jjmr. It is the first FDA-approved intravenous (IV) treatment for migraine prevention.
 
Vyepti (Eptinezumab-jjmr) is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds to calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) ligand and blocks its binding to the receptor.
 
The recommended dose is 100 mg every 3 months; some patients may benefit from a dose of 300 mg.


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Which of the following information is/are TRUE about Nexletol? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. An active ingredient found in Nexletol is Bempedoic acid.
 
b. It is indicated for reducing the elevated LDL-c level.
 
c. It is an ATP Citrate Lyase (ACL) inhibitor.
 
d. The recommended dose should be taken every 8 hours.
 
e. Hyperuricemia and increased risk of tendon rupture or injury is reported side effect of the drug.


Which of the following information is/are TRUE about Nexletol? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. An active ingredient found in Nexletol is Bempedoic acid.
 
b. It is indicated for reducing the elevated LDL-c level.
 
c. It is an ATP Citrate Lyase (ACL) inhibitor.
 
d. The recommended dose should be taken every 8 hours.
 
e. Hyperuricemia and increased risk of tendon rupture or injury is reported side effect of the drug.
 
Answer: (a, b, c, and e).  
 
The active ingredient found in Nexletol is Bempedoic acid. It is a tablet, an oral, once-daily, non-statin  (LDL-C) lowering medicine.
 
It is indicated as an adjunct to diet and maximally tolerated statin therapy for the treatment of adults with heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia (HeFH) or established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) who require additional lowering of LDL-C.  
 
Nexletol is a first-in-class ATP Citrate Lyase (ACL) inhibitor that lowers LDL-C by inhibition of cholesterol synthesis in the liver.
 
Nexletol was generally well-tolerated in clinical studies. Label warnings and precautions include hyperuricemia, with the development of gout in a small percentage of patients, as well as increased risk of tendon rupture or injury.
 
Overall in Phase 3 studies, the adverse events reported most frequently in patients who received Nexletol were generally reported at similar rates in patients who received placebo.
The most common adverse events reported with Nexletol (incidence ≥ 2% and greater than placebo) were upper respiratory tract infections, muscle spasms, hyperuricemia, back pain, abdominal pain or discomfort, bronchitis, pain in extremity, anemia, and elevated liver enzymes.
 
Avoid concomitant use of Nexletol with Simvastatin greater than 20 mg.


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The Multistate Pharmacy Jurisprudence Examination (MPJE) is a crucial step for pharmacists seeking licensure in the United States. Administered by the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP), the MPJE tests a candidate's knowledge of federal and state-specific laws governing the practice of pharmacy. This exam ensures that pharmacists are well-versed in legal and ethical guidelines, which is essential for safe and effective practice. This article provides an in-depth look at the MPJE, including its applicability, format, and tips for preparation.

Select your state and take the practice test.MPJE AND CPJE Online Access Quizzes. (pharmacyexam.com)

States Where the MPJE is Applicable

The MPJE is required for pharmacy licensure in most U.S. states and jurisdictions. Specifically, 48 states, the District of Columbia, Guam, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands mandate the MPJE for licensure. However, there are exceptions:

  • Exceptions: Currently, the MPJE is not required in Arkansas and California. These states have their own state-specific jurisprudence exams.

Pharmacists who plan to practice in multiple states must take the MPJE for each state, as the exam includes state-specific questions alongside federal law questions.

Exam Format

The MPJE is designed to assess the candidate's knowledge in three main areas:

  1. Pharmacy Practice (83% of the exam): This section focuses on the application of laws and regulations in pharmacy practice, including the distribution and dispensing of medications, patient care, and the management of pharmacy operations.

  2. Licensure, Registration, Certification, and Operational Requirements (15% of the exam): This section covers the requirements for becoming licensed as a pharmacist, including the procedures for obtaining and maintaining licensure, as well as the operational requirements for running a pharmacy.

  3. General Regulatory Processes (2% of the exam): This smaller section deals with the overall framework of regulatory processes, including how laws and regulations are developed, implemented, and enforced.

The MPJE consists of 120 questions, of which 100 are scored, and 20 are pretest questions that do not count towards the final score. Candidates have 2 hours and 30 minutes to complete the exam.

Pharmacy Exam provides practice tests which help you simulate your realtime exam experience. To take a practice test, follow the linkMPJE AND CPJE Online Access Quizzes. (pharmacyexam.com)

Scoring and Passing Criteria

The MPJE uses a scaled scoring system, with scores ranging from 0 to 100. To pass, candidates typically need to achieve a minimum scaled score of 75. This score does not directly reflect the number of correct answers but rather the difficulty of the questions answered correctly.



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Which of the following information is/are TRUE about coronavirus? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. 2019-nCoV belongs to a family of single-stranded RNA viruses known as coronaviridae, a common type of virus which affects mammals, birds and reptiles.
 
b. In humans, it commonly causes mild infections, similar to the common cold, and accounts for 10-30% of upper respiratory tract infections in adults
 
c. Although the incubation period of the 2019-nCoV strain is currently unknown, the United States Centre for Disease Control indicates that symptoms may appear in as few as 2 days or as long as 14 days after exposure.
 
d. Similarly to other common respiratory tract infections, MERS and SARS are spread by respiratory droplets produced by an infected person when they sneeze or cough.
 
e. In severe cases, the coronavirus can cause kidney failure.


Which of the following information is/are TRUE about coronavirus? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. 2019-nCoV belongs to a family of single-stranded RNA viruses known as coronaviridae, a common type of virus which affects mammals, birds and reptiles.
 
b. In humans, it commonly causes mild infections, similar to the common cold, and accounts for 10-30% of upper respiratory tract infections in adults
 
c. Although the incubation period of the 2019-nCoV strain is currently unknown, the United States Centre for Disease Control indicates that symptoms may appear in as few as 2 days or as long as 14 days after exposure.
 
d. Similarly to other common respiratory tract infections, MERS and SARS are spread by respiratory droplets produced by an infected person when they sneeze or cough.
 
e. In severe cases, the coronavirus can cause kidney failure.

Answer: (a, b, c, d, e).  
 
A novel strain of coronavirus (temporarily named ‘2019-nCoV’ by the World Health Organization [WHO]) was first detected in December 2019 in Wuhan, a city in China’s Hubei province with a population of 11 million, after an outbreak of pneumonia without an obvious cause. The virus has now spread to countries across the globe.
 
Pharmacists are likely to come across worried patients, and/or those with cold and flu symptoms which may appear similar to those of 2019-nCoV.
 
2019-nCoV belongs to a family of single-stranded RNA viruses known as coronaviridae, a common type of virus which affects mammals, birds and reptiles.
 
In humans, it commonly causes mild infections, similar to the common cold, and accounts for 10-30% of upper respiratory tract infections in adults. More serious infections are rare, although coronaviruses can cause enteric and neurological disease.
 
Previous coronavirus outbreaks include Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS), first reported in Saudi Arabia in September 2012, and severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), identified in southern China in 2003. MERS infected around 2,500 people and led to more than 850 deaths while SARS infected more than 8,000 people and resulted in nearly 800 deaths. The case fatality rates for these conditions were 35% and 10%, respectively.
 
2019-nCoV is a new strain of coronavirus that has not been previously identified in humans. Although the incubation period of the 2019-nCoV strain is currently unknown, the United States Centre for Disease Control indicates that symptoms may appear in as few as 2 days or as long as 14 days after exposure.
 
Similarly, to other common respiratory tract infections, MERS and SARS are spread by respiratory droplets produced by an infected person when they sneeze or cough.
 
As this coronavirus affects the respiratory tract, common presenting symptoms include fever and dry cough, with some patients presenting with respiratory symptoms (e.g. sore throat, nasal congestion, malaise, headache and myalgia) or even struggling for breath.
 
In severe cases, the coronavirus can cause pneumonia, severe acute respiratory syndrome, kidney failure and death.


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Dificid should be used only to treat infections that are proven or strongly suspected to be caused by:

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Escherichia coli
d. Haemophilus influenzae
e. Clostridium difficile


Dificid should be used only to treat infections that are proven or strongly suspected to be caused by:

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Escherichia coli
d. Haemophilus influenzae
e. Clostridium difficile

Answer: (e).

The active ingredient found in Dificid is Fidaxomicin. It is a macrolide antibacterial drug for oral administration. Dificid is a macrolide antibacterial medicine indicated in adults and pediatric patients aged 6 months and older for treatment of Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD).

The recommended adult dose is one 200 mg Dificid tablet orally twice daily for 10 days with or without food. It is available as tablet and oral suspension dosage form.

Anemia, neutropenia, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain are commonly reported side effects of Dificid.



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What are active ingredients of Trijardy XR? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. empagliflozin
b. glyburide
c. linagliptin
d. metformin
e. nateglinide


What are active ingredients of Trijardy XR? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. empagliflozin
b. glyburide
c. linagliptin
d. metformin
e. nateglinide

Answer: (a,c,d).  

The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved Trijardy XR (empagliflozin/linagliptin/metformin hydrochloride extended release tablets) to lower blood sugar in adults with type 2 diabetes, along with diet and exercise. Trijardy XR provides three type 2 diabetes medicines in one pill, including Jardiance® (empagliflozin), Tradjenta® (linagliptin) and metformin hydrochloride extended release. Trijardy XR is marketed by Boehringer Ingelheim Pharmaceuticals, Inc. and Eli Lilly and Company.


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How one should take Rybelsus? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. Take on an empty stomach when you first wake up.
b. Take with no more than 4 ounces of plain water.
c. Wait at least 30 minutes before eating, drinking, or taking other oral medications.
d. It works best if you take Rybelsus 5 minutes before taking the meal.
e. It should be taken once a weekly.


How one should take Rybelsus? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. Take on an empty stomach when you first wake up.
b. Take with no more than 4 ounces of plain water.
c. Wait at least 30 minutes before eating, drinking, or taking other oral medications.
d. It works best if you take Rybelsus 5 minutes before taking the meal.
e. It should be taken once a weekly.
 
Answer: (a,b,c) The active ingredient found in Rybelsus is Semaglutide. It is a glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist indicated as:
1. an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
 
Rybelsus should be taken:
 
1. Take on an empty stomach when you first wake up.
2. Take with no more than 4 ounces of plain water.
3. Wait at least 30 minutes before eating, drinking, or taking other oral medications.
 
Instruct patients to take Rybelsus (Semaglutide) at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or other oral medications of the day with no more than 4 ounces of plain water only. Waiting less than 30 minutes, or taking with food, beverages (other than plain water) or other oral medications will lessen the effect of Rybelsus (Semaglutide).
Waiting more than 30 minutes to eat may increase the absorption of Rybelsus (Semaglutide). Swallow tablets whole. Do not cut, crush, or chew tablets.
 
Start Rybelsus (Semaglutide) with 3 mg once daily for 30 days. After 30 days on the 3 mg dose, increase the dose to 7 mg once daily. Dose may be increased to 14 mg once daily if additional glycemic control is needed after at least 30 days on the 7 mg dose.

Source: www.pharmacyexam.com