a. Hypertension b. Gout c. Migraine d. Diabetes e. Rheumatoid arthritis
Nurtec is indicated for which of the following?
a. Hypertension b. Gout c. Migraine d. Diabetes e. Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: c
The active ingredient found in Nurtec is Rimegepant. It is a calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor antagonist indicated for the acute treatment of migraine with or without aura in adults.
The recommended dose is 75 mg taken orally, as needed. The maximum dose in a 24-hour period is 75 mg. The safety of treating more than 15 migraines in a 30-day period has not been established.
Nausea is the most commonly reported side effect of Nurtec (Rimegepant).
a. Hypertension b. Diabetes c. Prevention of pregnancy d. Nausea and vomiting associated with emetogenic cancer therapy e. Parkinsonism
Phexxi is indicated for the treatment of:
a. Hypertension b. Diabetes c. Prevention of pregnancy d. Nausea and vomiting associated with emetogenic cancer therapy e. Parkinsonism
Answer: C
Phexxi is the first non-hormonal, on-demand, vaginal pH regulator contraceptive designed to maintain vaginal pH within the normal range of 3.5 to 4.5 – an acidic environment that is inhospitable to sperm.
The active ingredients found in Phexxi are lactic acid, citric acid and potassium bitartrate. It is available as vaginal gel.
It is indicated for the prevention of pregnancy in females of reproductive potential for use as an on-demand method of contraception. Phexxi is not effective for the prevention of pregnancy when administered after intercourse.
Avoid use of Phexxi in females of reproductive potential with history of recurrent urinary tract infection or urinary tract abnormalities.
Vulvovaginal burning sensation, vulvovaginal pruritus, vulvovaginal mycotic infection, urinary tract infection, vulvovaginal discomfort, bacterial vaginosis, vaginal discharge, genital discomfort, dysuria, and vulvovaginal pain are commonly reported side effects of Phexxi.
The Multistate Pharmacy Jurisprudence Examination (MPJE) is a standardized exam that tests pharmacy law knowledge for licensure across various states, including Alaska. Preparing for the Alaska MPJE requires understanding both federal and state-specific laws that govern pharmacy practices. This guide aims to provide a concise overview of what to expect and how to prepare for the Alaska MPJE. We will cover following topics. Also you can find more details and exam preparation material here.
The Alaska MPJE is designed to assess a candidate's knowledge of pharmacy laws and regulations specific to the state of Alaska, as well as federal pharmacy laws. It is developed by the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) and is a requirement for those seeking pharmacist licensure in Alaska.
The Alaska Board of Pharmacy uses this exam to ensure that pharmacists have a comprehensive understanding of the legal aspects of pharmacy practice in the state, including controlled substances, prescription requirements, and licensure regulations.
2. Exam Format and Content
The MPJE consists of 120 questions, of which 100 are scored. The remaining 20 are pretest questions and do not affect the final score. The test is computerized and includes various question formats, such as multiple-choice, multiple-response, ordered response, and constructed response.
The exam covers three primary content areas:
Pharmacy Practice (83%): This section focuses on the practice of pharmacy in different settings. It includes questions about the legal requirements for drug distribution, record-keeping, and patient counseling.
Licensure, Registration, Certification, and Operational Requirements (15%): Questions in this area relate to the qualifications and legal requirements for obtaining and maintaining a pharmacist's license, registration, and other certifications in Alaska.
General Regulatory Processes (2%): This section covers federal laws and regulations, including those related to controlled substances and the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).
Candidates have 2.5 hours to complete the exam. The minimum passing score is 75.
3. Preparing for the Exam
Preparation is key to successfully passing the Alaska MPJE. Here are some steps to help you get started:
Understand Alaska Pharmacy Laws: Since the exam is state-specific, review Alaska's pharmacy laws and regulations, including rules from the Alaska Board of Pharmacy. Pay special attention to areas such as the Alaska Pharmacy Act and controlled substance regulations.
Review Federal Pharmacy Laws: Although the focus is on Alaska-specific regulations, federal laws such as the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) and the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) are also covered.
Outline Key Areas: Focus on areas like prescription regulations, labeling requirements, pharmacy operations, drug schedules, pharmacist responsibilities, and security measures for controlled substances.
Create a Study Schedule: Set aside regular study time each day or week leading up to the exam. Break down the material into manageable sections to cover all necessary content.
4. Study Resources
You can find plenty of resources to prepare for your ALASKA MPJE exam on PharmacyExam. For more details visit this page.
The CK test is useful to detect which of the following?
I. Muscular dystrophy II. Rhabdomyolysis III. Heart attacks
a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. All
The CK test is useful to detect which of the following?
I. Muscular dystrophy II. Rhabdomyolysis III. Heart attacks
a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. All
Answer: E (All).
The CK test measures the amount of creatine kinase (CK) in the blood. CK is a type of protein, known as an enzyme. It is mostly found in skeletal muscles and heart, with lesser amounts in the brain. Skeletal muscles are the muscles attached to skeleton.
A CK test is most often used to diagnose and monitor muscular injuries and diseases. These diseases include:
1. Muscular dystrophy, a rare inherited disease that causes weakness, breakdown, and loss of function of skeletal muscles. It mostly occurs in males.
2. Rhabdomyolysis, a rapid breakdown of muscle tissue. It can be caused by a serious injury, muscle disease, or other disorder.
3. The test can also be used to help diagnose a heart attack, though not very often. CK testing used to be a common test for heart attacks.
_______________ is characterized by recurrent binge eating episodes during which a person feels a loss of control and marked distress over his or her eating. Binge eating episodes are not followed by purging, excessive exercise or fasting.
a. Binge eating disorder b. Bulimia Nervosa c. Anorexia Nervosa d. High carb eating disorder e. Low carb eating disorder
_______________ is characterized by recurrent binge eating episodes during which a person feels a loss of control and marked distress over his or her eating. Binge eating episodes are not followed by purging, excessive exercise or fasting.
a. Binge eating disorder b. Bulimia Nervosa c. Anorexia Nervosa d. High carb eating disorder e. Low carb eating disorder
Answer: a
1. Binge eating disorder is characterized by recurrent binge eating episodes during which a person feels a loss of control and marked distress over his or her eating. Unlike bulimia nervosa, binge eating episodes are not followed by purging, excessive exercise or fasting. As a result, people with binge eating disorder often are overweight or obese.
2. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by binge eating (eating large amounts of food in a short time, along with the sense of a loss of control) followed by a type of behavior that compensates for the binge, such as purging (e.g., vomiting, excessive use of laxatives, or diuretics), fasting, and/or excessive exercise.
Unlike anorexia nervosa, people with bulimia can fall within the normal range for their weight. But like people with anorexia, they often fear gaining weight, want desperately to lose weight, and are intensely unhappy with their body size and shape.
3. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by a significant and persistent reduction in food intake leading to extremely low body weight in the context of age, sex, and physical health; a relentless pursuit of thinness; a distortion of body image and intense fear of gaining weight; and extremely disturbed eating behavior.
Many people with anorexia see themselves as overweight, even when they are starved or severely malnourished.
Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Lyme disease tests? [Select ALL That Apply].
a. Most Lyme disease tests are designed to detect antibodies made by the body in response to infection. b. Antibodies can take several weeks to develop, so patients may test negative if infected only recently. c. Antibodies normally persist in the blood for months or even years after the infection is gone; therefore, the test cannot be used to determine cure. d. Infection with other diseases, including some tickborne diseases, or some viral, bacterial, or autoimmune diseases, can result in false positive test results. e. Some tests give results for two types of antibody, IgM and IgG. Positive IgM results should be disregarded if the patient has been ill for more than 30 days.
Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Lyme disease tests? [Select ALL That Apply].
a. Most Lyme disease tests are designed to detect antibodies made by the body in response to infection. b. Antibodies can take several weeks to develop, so patients may test negative if infected only recently. c. Antibodies normally persist in the blood for months or even years after the infection is gone; therefore, the test cannot be used to determine cure. d. Infection with other diseases, including some tickborne diseases, or some viral, bacterial, or autoimmune diseases, can result in false positive test results. e. Some tests give results for two types of antibody, IgM and IgG. Positive IgM results should be disregarded if the patient has been ill for more than 30 days.
Answer: (a,b,c,d,e)
Lyme disease is caused by bacteria. In the United States, this is usually a bacterium called Borrelia burgdorferi. It spreads to humans through the bite of an infected tick. The ticks that spread it are blacklegged ticks (or deer ticks).
CDC currently recommends a two-step testing process for Lyme disease. Both steps are required and can be done using the same blood sample. If this first step is negative, no further testing is recommended. If the first step is positive or indeterminate (sometimes called “equivocal”), the second step should be performed. The overall result is positive only when the first test is positive (or equivocal) and the second test is positive (or for some tests equivocal).
Key points to remember:
1. Most Lyme disease tests are designed to detect antibodies made by the body in response to infection. 2. Antibodies can take several weeks to develop, so patients may test negative if infected only recently. 3. Antibodies normally persist in the blood for months or even years after the infection is gone; therefore, the test cannot be used to determine cure. 4. Infection with other diseases, including some tickborne diseases, or some viral, bacterial, or autoimmune diseases, can result in false positive test results. 5. Some tests give results for two types of antibody, IgM and IgG. Positive IgM results should be disregarded if the patient has been ill for more than 30 days.
MenQuadfi is a vaccine given to people 2 years of age and older to help prevent invasive meningococcal disease (including meningitis) caused by serogroups ___________ of the bacterium N meningitidis. [Select ALL That Apply].
a. A b. B c. C d. W e. Y
MenQuadfi is a vaccine given to people 2 years of age and older to help prevent invasive meningococcal disease (including meningitis) caused by serogroups ___________ of the bacterium N meningitidis. [Select ALL That Apply].
a. A b. B c. C d. W e. Y
Answer: (a,c,d,e)
MenQuadfi is a vaccine given to people 2 years of age and older to help prevent invasive meningococcal disease (including meningitis) caused by serogroups A, C, W, and Y of the bacterium N meningitidis.
MenQuadfi does not prevent serogroup B disease.
In the U.S., the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends vaccination against meningococcal disease at 11-12 years of age and a second dose at 16 years of age. Despite strong public health recommendations, about half of teens have not received the recommended second dose of MenACWY vaccine by 17 years of age, leaving them vulnerable when they are at increased risk for the disease.
Hundreds of cases of vaccine-preventable meningococcal disease (caused by serogroups B, C, W, Y) still occur annually in the U.S. and, despite treatment, one in five survivors suffer from permanent complications such as hearing loss, organ damage, and limb amputations.
The most common side effects following a first dose of MenQuadfi included injection site pain, muscle ache, headache, and tiredness. In adolescents and adults receiving a MenQuadfi booster, similar rates of these reactions were observed.
Keytruda is indicated for the treatment of: [Select ALL That Apply].
a. Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer b. Head and Neck Squamous Cell Cancer c. Gastric Cancer d. Esophageal Cancer e. Cervical Cancer
Keytruda is indicated for the treatment of: [Select ALL That Apply].
a. Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer b. Head and Neck Squamous Cell Cancer c. Gastric Cancer d. Esophageal Cancer e. Cervical Cancer
Answer: (a,b,c,d,e)
The active ingredient found in Keytruda is Pembrolizumab. It is available in injection (100 mg/4 mL) form.
Binding of the PD-1 ligands, PD-L1 and PD-L2, to the PD-1 receptor found on T cells, inhibits T cell proliferation and cytokine production. Upregulation of PD-1 ligands occurs in some tumors and signaling through this pathway can contribute to inhibition of active T-cell immune surveillance of tumors.
Pembrolizumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to the PD-1 receptor and blocks its interaction with PD-L1 and PD-L2, releasing PD-1 pathway-mediated inhibition of the immune response, including the anti-tumor immune response. In syngeneic mouse tumor models, blocking PD-1 activity resulted in decreased tumor growth.
Keytruda is indicated for the treatment of:
a. Melanoma b. Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC) c. Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC) d. Head and Neck Squamous Cell Cancer (HNSCC) e. Classical Hodgkin Lymphoma (cHL) f. Primary Mediastinal Large B-Cell Lymphoma (PMBCL) g. Urothelial Carcinoma h. Microsatellite Instability-High Cancer i. Gastric Cancer k. Esophageal Cancer l. Cervical Cancer m. Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC) n. Merkel Cell Carcinoma (MCC) o. Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC) p. Endometrial Carcinoma
The usual recommended dose of Keytruda is 200 mg every 3 weeks or 400 mg every 6 weeks.
Immune-Mediated pneumonitis, colitis, hepatitis, endocrinopathies, hypophysitis, nephritis and renal dysfunction are commonly reported side effects of the drug.
What are the possible side effects of Farxiga? [Select All That Apply]:
a. Dehydration b. Ketoacidosis c. Urinary tract infections d. Vaginal yeast infections e. Balanitis
What are the possible side effects of Farxiga? [Select All That Apply]:
a. Dehydration b. Ketoacidosis c. Urinary tract infections d. Vaginal yeast infections e. Balanitis
Answer: (a,b,c,d,e)
The active ingredient found in Farxiga is Dapagliflozin (Farxiga).
Farxiga may cause serious side effects including: 1. Dehydration 2. Ketoacidosis 3. Serious urinary tract infections (UTI) 4. Low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) 5. Bacterial infections under the skin of the genitals and areas around them 6. Vaginal yeast infections 7. Yeast infection of skin around the penis (balanitis) in men.
The most common side effects of Dapagliflozin (Farxiga) include yeast infections of the vagina or penis, and changes in urination, including urgent need to urinate more often, in larger amounts, or at night.
a. improve blood sugar control along with diet and exercise in adults with type 2 diabetes. b. reduce the risk of hospitalization for heart failure in adults with type 2 diabetes. c. reduce the risk of cardiovascular death and hospitalization for heart failure in adults with heart failure. d. reduce the risk of diabetic ketoacidosis in adults with type 1 diabetes.
Farxiga is indicated to [Select All That Apply]:
a. improve blood sugar control along with diet and exercise in adults with type 2 diabetes. b. reduce the risk of hospitalization for heart failure in adults with type 2 diabetes. c. reduce the risk of cardiovascular death and hospitalization for heart failure in adults with heart failure. d. reduce the risk of diabetic ketoacidosis in adults with type 1 diabetes.
Answer: (a,b,c)
The active ingredient found in Farxiga is Dapagliflozin (Farxiga). Farxiga is indicated to:
1. improve blood sugar control along with diet and exercise in adults with type 2 diabetes. 2. reduce the risk of hospitalization for heart failure in adults with type 2 diabetes. 3. reduce the risk of cardiovascular death and hospitalization for heart failure in adults with heart failure.
Farxiga should not be used to treat people with type 1 diabetes or diabetic ketoacidosis (increased ketones in your blood or urine).
To improve glycemic control, the recommended starting dose of Farxiga is 5 mg orally once daily, taken in the morning, with or without food. In patients tolerating Farxiga 5 mg once daily who require additional glycemic control, the dose can be increased to 10 mg once daily.
