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Technician® Sample Questions

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Which of the following information is/are TRUE about preparing TPN formulation? (Select All that apply).
 
a. A lipid emulsion in a three-in-one admixture obscures the presence of calcium phosphate precipitates.
b. The solubility of the added calcium should be calculated from the volume at the time the calcium is added and should NOT be based upon the final volume.
c. If the amount of calcium or phosphate which must be added is likely to cause a precipitate, some or all of the calcium should be administered separately.
d. If a three-in-one admixture is medically necessary, then add the calcium before the lipid emulsion.
e. When adding calcium and phosphate to an admixture, the calcium should be added first.


Which of the following information is/are TRUE about preparing TPN formulation? (Select All that apply).
 
a. A lipid emulsion in a three-in-one admixture obscures the presence of calcium phosphate precipitates.
b. The solubility of the added calcium should be calculated from the volume at the time the calcium is added and should NOT be based upon the final volume.
c. If the amount of calcium or phosphate which must be added is likely to cause a precipitate, some or all of the calcium should be administered separately.
d. If a three-in-one admixture is medically necessary, then add the calcium before the lipid emulsion.
e. When adding calcium and phosphate to an admixture, the calcium should be added first.

Answer: (a,b,c,d). TPN solutions are made according to a variety of formulations and compounding protocols. Thus, there are possibilities of calcium phosphate precipitates and many other chemical incompatibilities. Precipitates could develop because of a number of factors such as: the concentration, pH, and phosphate content of the amino acid solutions; the calcium and phosphorous additives; the order of mixing; the mixing process; or the compounder. The presence of a lipid emulsion in the TPN admixture would obscure the presence of any precipitate.
 
Because of the potential for life threatening events, caution should be taken to ensure that precipitates have not formed in any parenteral nutrition admixtures.
 
1. The amounts of phosphorous and of calcium added to the admixture are critical. The solubility of the added calcium should be calculated from the volume at the time the calcium is added. It should not be based upon the final volume.
 
Some amino acid injections for TPN admixtures contain phosphate ions (as a phosphoric acid buffer). These phosphate ions and the volume at the time the phosphate is added should be considered when calculating the concentration of phosphate additives. Also, when adding calcium and phosphate to an admixture, the phosphate should be added first. 
 
2. The line should be flushed between the addition of any potentially incompatible components.
 
3. A lipid emulsion in a three-in-one admixture obscures the presence of a precipitate. Therefore, if a lipid emulsion is needed, either:

(1). use a two-in-one admixture with the lipid infused separately, or
(2). if a three-in-one admixture is medically necessary, then add the calcium before the lipid emulsion and according to the recommendations in number 1 above.
 
If the amount of calcium or phosphate which must be added is likely to cause a precipitate, some or all of the calcium should be administered separately. Such separate infusions must be properly diluted and slowly infused to avoid serious adverse events related to the calcium.

4. A filter should be used when infusing either central or peripheral parenteral nutrition admixtures. Standards of practice vary, but the following is suggested: a 1.2 micron air eliminating filter for lipid containing admixtures, and a 0.22 micron air eliminating filter for nonlipid containing admixtures.


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Clobazam is classified as a:
 
a. Schedule II controlled drug
b. Schedule III controlled drug
c. Schedule IV controlled drug
d. Schedule V controlled drug
 


Clobazam is classified as a:
 
a. Schedule II controlled drug
b. Schedule III controlled drug
c. Schedule IV controlled drug
d. Schedule V controlled drug
 
Answer: (c). The active ingredient found in Onfi is Clobazam. It is classified as schedule IV controlled substance. Each Onfi (Clobazam) tablet contains 10 mg or 20 mg of clobazam. It is also available for oral administration as an off-white suspension containing clobazam at a concentration of 2.5 mg/mL.
 
Onfi (Clobazam) is classified as benzodiazepine. Clobazam potentiates the GABAergic neurotransmission by binding at the benzodiazepine site of the GABAa receptor.
 
Onfi (Clobazam) is indicated for the adjunctive treatment of seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (LGS) in patients 2 years of age or older.
 
A daily dose of Onfi (Clobazam) greater than 5 mg should be administered in divided doses twice daily; a 5 mg daily dose can be administered as a single dose.
 
As with all antiepileptic drugs and benzodiazepines, withdraw Onfi (Clobazam) gradually. The patient should taper by decreasing the total daily dose by 5-10 mg/day on a weekly basis until discontinued.
 
Somnolence, depression, sedation, withdrawal symptoms, serious dermatological reactions and suicidal behavior and ideation are commonly reported side effects of Onfi (Clobazam).
 
www.pharmacyexam.com


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Levetiracetam is indicated for the treatment of:

a. Diabetes
b. Hypertension
c. Seizure
d. Parkinson’s
e. Depression



Levetiracetam is indicated for the treatment of:

a. Diabetes
b. Hypertension
c. Seizure
d. Parkinson’s
e. Depression

Answer: Seizure. Levetiracetam (Spritam) is indicated for the treatment of partial onset seizures, myoclonic seizures and primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures in adults and children with epilepsy.
 
Spritam utilizes Aprecia's proprietary ZipDose® Technology platform, a groundbreaking advance that uses three-dimensional printing (3DP) to produce a porous formulation that rapidly disintegrates with a sip of liquid.1 While 3DP has been used previously to manufacture medical devices, this approval marks the first time a drug product manufactured with this technology has been approved by the FDA.
 
ZipDose Technology enables the delivery of a high drug load, up to 1,000 mg in a single dose. As a result, Spritam enhances the patient experience - administration of even the largest strengths of Levetiracetam (Spritam) with just a sip of liquid. In addition, with Spritam there is no measuring required as each dose is individually packaged, making it easy to carry this treatment on the go.
 
The recommended daily dose is 1000 to 3000 mg per day.
 
Sleepiness, weakness, dizziness, infection, tiredness, acting aggressive, nasal congestion, decreased appetite, and irritability are commonly reported side effects of Levetiracetam (Spritam).
 
Levetiracetam is also available under the trade names Keppra and Elepsia.


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Which of the following is commonly known as “Z-Drug”?

a. Omeprazole
b. Olanzapine
c. Zolpidem
d. Nizatidine
e. Doxylamine


Which of the following is commonly known as “Z-Drug”?

a. Omeprazole
b. Olanzapine
c. Zolpidem
d. Nizatidine
e. Doxylamine

Answer: (c) The Z-drugs, which include Eszopiclone (Lunesta), Zolpidem (Ambien), and Zaleplon (Sonata), are benzodiazepine receptor agonists.  That means they work in a similar way to the benzodiazepine drugs inside the brain.  They are GABA agonists meaning they somewhat mimic the action of gamma-Aminobutyric acid, the inhibitory neurotransmitter and thereby induce sleepiness.
 
These drugs are sometimes referred to as non-benzodiazepine hypnotics or just non-benzodiazepines.  That's a dumb name, if you ask us.  Too unspecific and vague, especially if you are not in the context of sleep medicine.  Further, even within sleep medicine, there are compounds that are non-benzodiazepine hypnotics that would not be considered part of this class: antihistamines and Ramelteon, for instance.

One problem is that the chemists don't have a category that these drugs all fall into which is narrow enough to signify what medical practitioners are talking about.  These drugs are in the categories pyrazolopyrimidines, imidazopyridines or cyclopyrrones, but they are not all in the same category.

Therefore, we prefer the term Z-drugs.  The generic names for these drugs all contain the letter Z, and it is as good a name as any.


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All of the following vaccines can be stored in a refrigerator EXCEPT:

a. Influenza
b. Hep B
c. Rotavirus
d. HZV

Answer:


All of the following vaccines can be stored in a refrigerator EXCEPT:

a. Influenza
b. Hep B
c. Rotavirus
d. HZV

Answer: (d). CDC Vaccine Storage Recommendations List:

Vaccines Require To Be Stored In Referigerator (2 to 8 degrees C):
  1. HepA
  2. HepB
  3. HepA-HepB
  4. Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b)
  5. Hib-HepB
  6. HPV (Human papilloma virus)
  7. Influenza
  8. Meningococcal-combinations
  9. MMRa* (Measles, mumps, rubella)
  10. Pneumococcal
  11. Rotavirus
  12. Any diphtheria/tetanus toxoid, pertussis combination
Vaccines Require To Be Stored In Freezer (-50 to -15 degrees C):
  1. VAR Varicella
  2. HZV (Herpes Zoster Vaccine)
  3. MMRa (Measles, mumps, rubella)
  4. MMRV (Measles, mumps, rubella, varicella)
* Can be stored in freezer or referigerator.


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A pharmacy technician may NOT perform which of the following tasks?

I. Accept an original prescription drug order by telephone.
II. Perform patient counseling.
III. Sign any federally-required controlled substance or inventory form.

a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. All

Answer:


A pharmacy technician may NOT perform which of the following tasks?

I. Accept an original prescription drug order by telephone.
II. Perform patient counseling.
III. Sign any federally-required controlled substance or inventory form.

a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. All

Answer: All listed tasks cannot be performed by a pharmacy technician. The pharmacist in charge or the retail drug outlet shall determine the duties of pharmacy technicians based upon the needs of the drug outlet.

At time of employment the pharmacist in charge shall provide the technician with a description of the tasks that the technician may perform.

Pharmacy technicians are limited to performing tasks in the preparation of prescription legend drugs and nonjudgmental support services.

Permissible duties include the dispensing of drugs under the direct supervision of a pharmacist. Pharmacy technicians may also have access to a facsimile machine or computer used to receive original prescription drug orders via facsimile.

A pharmacy technician may not perform any of the following tasks:

A. Accept an original prescription drug order by telephone;

B. Clinically evaluate a patient profile relative to drugs that have or will be dispensed;

C. Perform patient counseling or suggesting over-the-counter or prescription products to a patient;

D. Make decisions that require the education and professional training of a pharmacist; or

E. Sign any federally-required controlled substance or inventory form.


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What is the principal side effect of Acarbose (Precose)?

a. Hyperglycemia
b. Bloating and diarrhea
c. Severe constipation
d. Bleeding

Answer:


What is the principal side effect of Acarbose (Precose)?

a. Hyperglycemia
b. Bloating and diarrhea
c. Severe constipation
d. Bleeding

Answer: b. Acarbose (Precose) is an oral alpha-glucosidase inhibitor for use in the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus. It delays the digestion of ingested carbohydrates, thereby resulting in a smaller rise in blood glucose concentration following meals. As a consequence of plasma glucose reduction, Precose reduces levels of glycosylated hemoglobin in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.

The recommended starting dosage of Acarbose (Precose) is 25 mg given orally three times daily at the start (with the first bite) of each main meal . However, some patients may benefit from more gradual dose titration to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. This may be achieved by initiating treatment at 25 mg once per day and subsequently increasing the frequency of administration to achieve 25 mg t.i.d.

Hypoglycemia, gas, bloating and diarrhea are commonly reported side effects of Acarbose (Precose).


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Which of the following drugs is classified as a controlled substance?

a. Cipro
b. Vibramycin
c. Lyrica
d. Antara

Answer:


Which of the following drugs is classified as a controlled substance?

a. Cipro
b. Vibramycin
c. Lyrica
d. Antara

Answer:(c) Lyrica (Pregabalin) is classified as a Schedule V controlled substance.It is indicated for:

1. Management of neuropathic pain associated with diabetic peripheral neuropathy
2. Management of postherpetic neuralgia
3. Adjunctive therapy for adult patients with partial onset seizures
4. Management of fibromyalgia
5. Management of neuropathic pain associated with spinal cord injury


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A prescription for Cymbalta can be filled by selecting: 

a. Lidocaine
b. Tramadol
c. Duloxetine
d. Diclofenac

Answer:


A prescription for Cymbalta can be filled by selecting: 

a. Lidocaine
b. Tramadol
c. Duloxetine
d. Diclofenac

Answer:(c) A prescription for Cymbalta can be filled by selecting Duloxetine. It is indicated for the treatment of depression.