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Nymalize, a calcium channel blocker, is indicated for which of the following?
 
a. Hypertension
b. Arrhythmia
c. Parkinson's
d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
e. Depression


Nymalize, a calcium channel blocker, is indicated for which of the following?
 
a. Hypertension
b. Arrhythmia
c. Parkinson's
d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
e. Depression

Answer:d.

Nymalize contains Nimodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker. An oral solution of Nymalize contains 60 mg of Nimodipine per 20 mL.

It is indicated for the improvement of neurological outcome by reducing the incidence and severity of ischemic deficits in adult patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) from ruptured intracranial berry aneurysms regardless of their post-ictus neurological condition (i.e., Hunt and Hess Grades I-V).

The recommended oral dosage is 20 mL (60 mg) every 4 hours for 21 consecutive days.

Hypotension is the major side effect of Nymalize.


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Khedezla is indicated for the treatment of which of the following?...


Khedezla is indicated for the treatment of which of the following?

a. Hypertension
b. Depression
c. Arthritis
d. Type II diabetes
e. Parkinsons

Answer: (b) Depression

The active ingredient found in Khedezla is Desvenlafaxine. Desvenlafaxine (O-desmethylvenlafaxine) is the major active metabolite of the antidepressant Effexor (Venlafaxine), a medication used to treat major depressive disorder.
 
Khedezla contains the serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) Desvenlafaxine, which is also contained in Pristiq. Pristiq was approved by the FDA in 2008 and contains Desvenlafaxine as the succinate salt.
 
Khedezla will be available in 50 mg and 100 mg strengths for once daily administration. The recommended dose for Khedezla is 50 mg once daily, with or without food. It should be taken at approximately the same time each day. Tablets must be swallowed whole with fluid and not divided, crushed, chewed, or dissolved.
 
In clinical studies, doses of 50 mg to 400 mg per day were shown to be effective, although no additional benefit was demonstrated at doses greater than 50 mg per day and adverse reactions and discontinuations were more frequent at higher doses.
 
Nausea, dizziness, insomnia, hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating), constipation, drowsiness, decreased appetite, anxiety, and specific male sexual function disorders are commonly reported side effects of the drug.
 


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Which of the following is/are non-economic costs associated with Medication Error?

I. loss of trust
II. reduced satisfaction
III. physical and psychological discomfort

a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. All


Which of the following is/are non-economic costs associated with Medication Error?

I. loss of trust
II. reduced satisfaction
III. physical and psychological discomfort

a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. All

Answer (e): In the two decades since the Institute of Medicine (IOM) released its landmark report providing recommendations for addressing medication errors, the focus on medication safety continues.

A recent meta-analysis of studies spanning from 2000 to 2019 suggest one in 20 patients are exposed to preventable harm in medical care with 25% of incidents being medication-related.

Medication errors impact an estimated 1.5 million people every year.

In 2019, Americans filled 5.96 billion prescriptions (30-day equivalent) which would result in an estimated 93,600,000 errors given a medication dispensing error rate of 1.57%.
The burden of medication errors is high.

Costs of treating drug-related injuries in hospitals are $3.5 billion a year,3 and the morbidity and mortality associated with medication errors is estimated to be $77 billion each year.

Beyond economic costs, errors are costly in terms of patients' loss of trust, reduced satisfaction and physical and psychological discomfort.

They are costly as health professionals lose morale and frustration at providing less than the best care possible.

Continued efforts to address medication error causes are critical to improve medication safety and public health. Pharmacists and the pharmacy team have important roles to play in preventing medication errors.


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Which of the following statements is/are TRUE ABOUT Palforzia? [Select ALL THAT APPLY]

a. The active ingredient found in Palforzia is Arachis hypogaea.
b. It is indicated to prevent peanut hypersensitivity.
c. It indicated for the emergency treatment of allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis.
d. It should not be administered in patients with uncontrolled asthma.
e. It is available only through a restricted program Palforzia REMS.


Which of the following statements is/are TRUE ABOUT Palforzia? [Select ALL THAT APPLY]

a. The active ingredient found in Palforzia is Arachis hypogaea.
b. It is indicated to prevent peanut hypersensitivity.
c. It indicated for the emergency treatment of allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis.
d. It should not be administered in patients with uncontrolled asthma.
e. It is available only through a restricted program Palforzia REMS.

Answer: (a,b,d,e). The active ingredient found in Palforzia is (Peanut (Arachis hypogaea) Allergen Powder-dnfp). It is an oral immunotherapy indicated for the mitigation of allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis, that may occur with accidental exposure to peanut. Palforzia is approved for use in patients with a confirmed diagnosis of peanut allergy.

Palforzia can cause anaphylaxis, which may be life-threatening and can occur at any time during Palforzia therapy. It is NOT indicated for the emergency treatment of allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis.

Prescribe injectable epinephrine, instruct and train patients on its appropriate use, and instruct patients to seek immediate medical care upon its use.

Do not administer Palforzia to patients with uncontrolled asthma. Observe patients during and after administration of the Initial Dose Escalation and the first dose of each Up-Dosing level, for at least 60 minutes.

Palforzia is available only through a restricted program called the Palforzia REMS.


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Patients should be advised to report immediately which of the following signs or symptoms when on Clozapine therapy? [Select ALL THAT APPLY].

a. Lethargy
b. Fever
c. Sore throat
d. Weakness
e. Severe nausea and vomiting


Patients should be advised to report immediately which of the following signs or symptoms when on Clozapine therapy? [Select ALL THAT APPLY].

a. Lethargy
b. Fever
c. Sore throat
d. Weakness
e. Severe nausea and vomiting

Answer: (a,b,c,d). Clozaril (Clozapine), an atypical antipsychotic drug, is indicated for:

1. Treatment-Resistant Schizophrenia
2. Reduction in the Risk of Recurrent Suicidal Behavior in Schizophrenia or Schizoaffective Disorders

Because of a significant risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially Life-threatening adverse event, Clozaril (Clozapine) should be Reserved for use in

(1). the treatment of severely ill patients with Schizophrenia who fail to show an acceptable response to Adequate courses of standard antipsychotic drug treatment,

Or

(2). for reducing the risk of recurrent suicidal behavior in patients With schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder who are judged to Be at risk of reexperiencing suicidal behavior.
Patients being treated with Clozapine must have a baseline white Blood cell (WBC) count and absolute neutrophil count (ANC) before initiation of treatment as well as regular WBC counts and ANCs during treatment and for at least 4 weeks after Discontinuation of treatment.

Clozapine is available only through a distribution system that Ensures monitoring of WBC count and ANC according to the Schedule described below prior to delivery of the next supply of Medication.

Agranulocytosis, defined as an ANC of less than 500/mm3, has been reported with Clozaril (Clozapine). Patients should be advised to report immediately the appearance of lethargy, weakness, fever, sore throat or any other signs of infection occurring at any time during Clozaril (Clozapine) therapy. Such patients should have a WBC count and ANC performed promptly.


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Based on the genetic make-up of SARS-CoV-2, which of the following drug classes is most likely to prove effective?

a. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
b. Protease inhibitors
c. Nucleoside analogues
d. Neuraminidase inhibitors
e. Calcium channel blockers


Based on the genetic make-up of SARS-CoV-2, which of the following drug classes is most likely to prove effective?

a. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
b. Protease inhibitors
c. Nucleoside analogues
d. Neuraminidase inhibitors
e. Calcium channel blockers

Answer: (b). The SARS-CoV-2 RNA codes for a pair of protease enzymes that are essential to production of viable virions upon release. Since protease inhibitors have been highly effective for treating patients with infections of human immunodeficiency virus and hepatitis C virus, that is the best choice.

Use of neuraminidase inhibitors (e.g., oseltamivir, peramivir, zanamivir) is not logical, since coronaviruses do not have a gene for neuraminidase.

Nucleoside analogues (e.g., acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin) would be expected to exert effects only at high levels since the coronavirus has an exonuclease that would recognize and remove the analogues when incorporated into the viral genome.

It is currently unknown as to whether angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin-2 receptor blockers (ARBs) are beneficial or harmful based on changes in the ACE2 protein involved in viral entry in lung tissue.



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The recommended dose of Olumiant in patients taking strong Organic Anion Transporter 3 (OAT3) inhibitors is _____________.

a. 1 mg once daily
b. 2 mg once daily
c. 3 mg once daily
d. 4 mg once daily
e. Cannot be used with OAT3 inhibitors


The recommended dose of Olumiant in patients taking strong Organic Anion Transporter 3 (OAT3) inhibitors is _____________.

a. 1 mg once daily
b. 2 mg once daily
c. 3 mg once daily
d. 4 mg once daily
e. Cannot be used with OAT3 inhibitors

Answer: (a). The active ingredient found in Olumiant is Baricitinib. It is a Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor indicated for the treatment of adult patients with moderately to severely active rheumatoid arthritis who have had an inadequate response to one or more TNF antagonist therapies.

1. The recommended dose of Olumiant (Baricitinib) in patients taking strong Organic Anion Transporter 3 (OAT3) inhibitors (e.g., probenecid) is 1 mg once daily.

2. The recommended dose of Olumiant (Baricitinib) in patients with moderate renal impairment is 1 mg once daily.

3. Olumiant (Baricitinib) is not recommended in patients with severe renal impairment.

4. Olumiant (Baricitinib) is not recommended in patients with severe hepatic impairment.

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.


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Which of the following statements would indicate that a patient understands why he is taking Olumiant?

a. "I have vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause."
b. "I have rheumatoid arthritis."
c. "I have hypercalcemia."
d. "I have Paget's disease of bone."
e. "I have migraine headaches associated with menopause."


Which of the following statements would indicate that a patient understands why he is taking Olumiant?

a. "I have vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause."
b. "I have rheumatoid arthritis."
c. "I have hypercalcemia."
d. "I have Paget's disease of bone."
e. "I have migraine headaches associated with menopause."

Answer: b

The active ingredient found in Olumiant is Baricitinib. It is a Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor indicated for the treatment of adult patients with moderately to severely active rheumatoid arthritis who have had an inadequate response to one or more TNF antagonist therapies.

The recommended dose of Olumiant is 2 mg once daily.

Upper respiratory tract infections, nausea, herpes simplex, and herpes zoster are commonly reported side effects of the drug.

The drug also has shown promising result for the treatment of Covid-19 infection when administered simultaneously with Remdesivir.Olumiant (Baricitinib) in combination with Veklury (Remdesivir) cuts the median recovery time by about a day, compared to patients treated with Remdesivir alone.


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Which of the following statements is/are TRUR ABOUT Covid-19? [Select ALL THAT APPLY]

a. COVID-19 infection often begins with malaise, dry cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and feeling of fever.
b. Covid-19 infection has incubation period of 2- to 14-day.
c. In contrast to the sudden onset people report with influenza, progression of symptoms with Covid-19 virus have a slower onset.
d. During early phases of viral spread, symptoms began an average of 7 days before patients sought medical or emergent care.
e. Fever occurs in 89% Covid-19 symptomatic patients.


Which of the following statements is/are TRUR ABOUT Covid-19? [Select ALL THAT APPLY]

a. COVID-19 infection often begins with malaise, dry cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and feeling of fever.
b. Covid-19 infection has incubation period of 2- to 14-day.
c. In contrast to the sudden onset people report with influenza, progression of symptoms with Covid-19 virus have a slower onset.
d. During early phases of viral spread, symptoms began an average of 7 days before patients sought medical or emergent care.
e. Fever occurs in 89% Covid-19 symptomatic patients.

Answer: (a,b,c,e) The COVID-19 often begins with malaise, dry cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and feeling of fever. It progresses over an 11- to 14-day period. It has incubation period of 2- to 14-day. Some patients have had nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. In contrast to the sudden onset people report with influenza, progression of symptoms with SARS-CoV-2 have a slower onset. During early phases of viral spread, symptoms began an average of 3.5 days (not 7 days) before patients sought medical or emergent care. Fever occurs in almost all symptomatic patients (89%), cough is very common (68%), and some patients have fatigue (38%), sputum production (33%), shortness of breath (19%), sore throat (14%), and headache (14%).

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.



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The transition from mild/moderate symptoms to more severe stages of COVID-19 is marked by the onset of:

a. Loss of or reductions in smell or taste
b. Multi organ failures
c. Severe seizure
d. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
e. Refractory, nonproductive cough


The transition from mild/moderate symptoms to more severe stages of COVID-19 is marked by the onset of:

a. Loss of or reductions in smell or taste
b. Multi organ failures
c. Severe seizure
d. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
e. Refractory, nonproductive cough

Answer:(d). About 5% of patients with COVID-19 (one-fourth of those needing hospitalization) present with advanced symptoms or become critically ill as viral damage in the lungs results in acute respiratory distress syndrome. Multi-organ failure occurs later in the disease course; changes in smell and taste and nonproductive cough are early symptoms of COVID-19.

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.




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