Blog Empty Image

A 35-year-old man who is a regular patient of yours comes to your pharmacy counter with a new prescription. His shoulders appear tense and his eyebrows are knit tightly.

He says to you, "I can't believe I have to fill another prescription today. I was just in three weeks ago and spent $75 dollars on some fancy new medication that didn't do a darn thing!" What might be an appropriate active listening response to this patient?

a. It must be very frustrating to have to try something new.

b. It's too bad we can't take a prescription back for a refund.

c. I can provide you with a smaller quantity this time.

d. Your doctor is trying to find the best medication for you.


A 35-year-old man who is a regular patient of yours comes to your pharmacy counter with a new prescription. His shoulders appear tense and his eyebrows are knit tightly.

He says to you, "I can't believe I have to fill another prescription today. I was just in three weeks ago and spent $75 dollars on some fancy new medication that didn't do a darn thing!" What might be an appropriate active listening response to this patient?

a. It must be very frustrating to have to try something new.

b. It's too bad we can't take a prescription back for a refund.

c. I can provide you with a smaller quantity this time.

d. Your doctor is trying to find the best medication for you.

Answer (a). It must be very frustrating to have to try something new. Answer "b" does not acknowledge the patient's feelings; answer "c" moves to finding a solution without acknowledging the patient's feelings and "d" is placating.

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.



Blog Empty Image

Which of the following information is TRUE ABOUT Tall Man Letters? [Select All that apply].

a. Several studies have shown that highlighting sections of words using tall man lettering can make similar drug names easier to distinguish.

b. The Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), the FDA, The Joint Commission, and other safety-conscious organizations such as the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) have promoted the use of tall man letters as one means of reducing confusion between similar drug names.

c. Nearly all of surveyed (87%) conducted by ISMP for Tall Man Letters felt that the use of tall man letters by the medical product industry helped to reduce errors in drug selection.

d. Approximately 50% of all survey respondents reported using tall man letters in conjunction with pharmacy-generated product and shelf labels, computer screens, and medication administration records.

e. Use of the tall man letters on computer-generated pharmacy labels was the most prevalent and was considered to be most effective, whereas use of the letters on preprinted order forms was among the least prevalent and was considered to be least effective.


Which of the following information is TRUE ABOUT Tall Man Letters? [Select All that apply].

a. Several studies have shown that highlighting sections of words using tall man lettering can make similar drug names easier to distinguish.

b. The Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), the FDA, The Joint Commission, and other safety-conscious organizations such as the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) have promoted the use of tall man letters as one means of reducing confusion between similar drug names.

c. Nearly all of surveyed (87%) conducted by ISMP for Tall Man Letters felt that the use of tall man letters by the medical product industry helped to reduce errors in drug selection.

d. Approximately 50% of all survey respondents reported using tall man letters in conjunction with pharmacy-generated product and shelf labels, computer screens, and medication administration records.

e. Use of the tall man letters on computer-generated pharmacy labels was the most prevalent and was considered to be most effective, whereas use of the letters on preprinted order forms was among the least prevalent and was considered to be least effective.

Answer: (a,b,c,d and e). Tall man (uppercase) letters are used within a drug name to highlight its primary dissimilarities and help to differentiate look-alike names. Several studies have shown that highlighting sections of words using tall man lettering can make similar drug names easier to distinguish, and fewer errors are made when tall man letters are used to differentiate products with look-alike names.

The Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), the FDA, The Joint Commission, and other safety-conscious organizations such as the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) have promoted the use of tall man letters as one means of reducing confusion between similar drug names.

From a survey conducted by the ISMP in 2008, most respondents appeared to agree. Nearly all of those surveyed (87%) felt that the use of tall man letters by the medical product industry helped to reduce errors in drug selection, and two-thirds (64%) reported that tall man lettering actually prevented them from dispensing or administering the wrong medication.

A fully alphabetized list of drug names with tall man lettering can be found at www.ismp.org/Tools/tallmanletters.pdf.

TallMan Letter

Approximately 50% of all survey respondents reported using tall man letters in conjunction with pharmacy-generated product and shelf labels, computer screens, and medication administration records. Half to three-quarters of respondents who used tall man letters with look-alike drug name pairs felt that this strategy was effective in reducing the risk of errors, depending on where it was used.

Use of the tall man letters on computer-generated pharmacy labels was the most prevalent and was considered to be most effective, whereas use of the letters on preprinted order forms was among the least prevalent and was considered to be least effective. In general, between one-quarter and one-third of respondents were undecided about the effectiveness of tall man letters, but very few reported that the letters were wholly ineffective in reducing the risk of errors. The use of tall man letters was less widely reported for drugs listed on prescriber order entry screens and smart pump libraries.


Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.


Blog Empty Image

Which of the following is strong CYP1A2 inhibitor? [Select All that apply].

a. Fluvoxamine
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Caffeine
d. Fluoxetine
e. Cimetidine


Which of the following is strong CYP1A2 inhibitor? [Select All that apply].

a. Fluvoxamine
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Caffeine
d. Fluoxetine
e. Cimetidine

Answer: (a,b). Dose adjustments may be necessary in patients with concomitant use of:

Strong CYP1A2 inhibitors (e.g., fluvoxamine, ciprofloxacin, or enoxacin);

Moderate or weak CYP1A2 inhibitors (e.g., oral contraceptives, or caffeine);

CYP2D6 or CYP3A4 inhibitors (e.g., cimetidine, escitalopram, erythromycin, paroxetine, bupropion, fluoxetine, quinidine, duloxetine, terbinafine, or sertraline);

CYP3A4 inducers (e.g., phenytoin, carbamazepine, St. John's wort, and rifampin); or

CYP1A2 inducers (e.g., tobacco smoking).

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.


Blog Empty Image

Using the NARxCHECK, a pharmacist is receiving a scaled score of 650 for a particular patient. Which of the following statements based on this scaled score is TRUE?

a. Very low risk for misuse
b. low risk for misuse
c. moderate risk for misuse
d. High risk for misuse


Using the NARxCHECK, a pharmacist is receiving a scaled score of 650 for a particular patient. Which of the following statements based on this scaled score is TRUE?

a. Very low risk for misuse
b. low risk for misuse
c. moderate risk for misuse
d. High risk for misuse

Answer: High risk for misuse.

NARXCHECK is an automatic prescription drug abuse assessment and management tool for health care providers. Once integrated into the facility's system, NARxCHECK automatically queries the state PMP database to generate a report that includes a score for three different drug classes: narcotics, sedatives, and stimulants.

These three-digit scores (000-999) help practitioners to decide whether or not they need to review a patient history before prescribing additional medications.

The score is easy to read using the following guidelines:

1. Less than 200 = Be confident - low risk for misuse.

2. 200 - 500 = Be curious - moderate risk for misuse.

3. Greater than 500 = Be cautious - higher risk for misuse.

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com


Blog Empty Image

Which of the following information is/are TRUE about Mifepristone?

I. It is commonly known as RU-486.

II. It is indicated for the medical termination of intrauterine pregnancy through 49 days' pregnancy.

III. The recommended dose is one (200 mg Mifepristone) as a single oral dose.

a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. II and III only
e. All


Which of the following information is/are TRUE about Mifepristone?

I. It is commonly known as RU-486.

II. It is indicated for the medical termination of intrauterine pregnancy through 49 days' pregnancy.

III. The recommended dose is one (200 mg Mifepristone) as a single oral dose.

a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. II and III only
e. All

Answer: I and II are true. Mifepristone (Mifeprex) is a synthetic steroid with antiprogestational effects.

Mifepristone (Mifeprex) is indicated for the medical termination of intrauterine pregnancy through 49 days' pregnancy. For purposes of this treatment, pregnancy is dated from the first day of the last menstrual period in a presumed 28 day cycle with ovulation occurring at mid-cycle.

The duration of pregnancy may be determined from menstrual history and by clinical examination. Ultrasonographic scan should be used if the duration of pregnancy is uncertain, or if ectopic pregnancy is suspected.

Any intrauterine device ("IUD") should be removed before treatment with Mifepristone (Mifeprex) begins.

Patients taking Mifepristone (Mifeprex) must take 400 μg of Misoprostol two days after taking Mifepristone (Mifeprex) unless a complete abortion has already been confirmed before that time.

Day One: Mifeprex Administration

Patients must read the MEDICATION GUIDE and read and sign the PATIENT AGREEMENT before Mifeprex is administered.

Three 200 mg tablets (600 mg) of Mifeprex are taken in a single oral dose.

Day Three: Misoprostol Administration

The patient returns to the health care provider two days after ingesting Mifeprex. Unless abortion has occurred and has been confirmed by clinical examination or ultrasonographic scan, the patient takes two 200 μg tablets (400 μg) of misoprostol orally.

During the period immediately following the administration of Misoprostol, the patient may need medication for cramps or gastrointestinal symptoms.

The patient should be given instructions on what to do if significant discomfort, excessive vaginal bleeding or other adverse reactions occur and should be given a phone number to call if she has questions following the administration of the Misoprostol.

In addition, the name and phone number of the physician who will be handling emergencies should be provided to the patient.

Day 14: Post-Treatment Examination

Patients will return for a follow-up visit approximately 14 days after the administration of Mifeprex. This visit is very important to confirm by clinical examination or ultrasonographic scan that a complete termination of pregnancy has occurred.

Pregnancy termination by surgery is recommended in cases when Mifepristone (Mifeprex) and misoprostol fail to cause termination of intrauterine pregnancy
Serious and sometimes fatal infections and bleeding occur very rarely following spontaneous, surgical, and medical abortions, including following Mifepristone (Mifeprex) use.
Ensure that the patient knows whom to call and what to do, including going to an Emergency Room if none of the provided contacts are reachable, if she experiences sustained fever, severe abdominal pain, prolonged heavy bleeding, or syncope, or if she experiences abdominal pain or discomfort or general malaise (including weakness, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea) more than 24 hours after taking Misoprostol.

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.


Blog Empty Image

Which of the following information about Zurampic is/are TRUE? [Select All that apply].

a. Acute liver failure has reported with Zurampic.
b. Zurampic should be used in combination with a xanthine oxidase inhibitor.
c. An active ingredient found in Zurampic is Lesinurad.
d. Zurampic is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor.
e. Zurampic is indicated for the treatment of hyperuricemia associated with gout.


Which of the following information about Zurampic is/are TRUE? [Select All that apply].

a. Acute liver failure has reported with Zurampic.
b. Zurampic should be used in combination with a xanthine oxidase inhibitor.
c. An active ingredient found in Zurampic is Lesinurad.
d. Zurampic is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor.
e. Zurampic is indicated for the treatment of hyperuricemia associated with gout.

Answer: (b,c,e). Zurampic (Lesinurad) is a URAT1 inhibitor. It is available as blue film-coated tablets for oral administration containing 200 mg Lesinurad. It should be used in combination with a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. Lesinurad reduces serum uric acid levels by inhibiting the function of transporter proteins involved in uric acid reabsorption in the kidney. It is indicated in combination with a xanthine oxidase inhibitor for the treatment of hyperuricemia associated with gout in patients who have not achieved target serum uric acid levels with a xanthine oxidase inhibitor alone.

Zurampic (Lesinurad) is not recommended for the treatment of asymptomatic hyperuricemia. Zurampic (Lesinurad) should not be used as monotherapy.

Zurampic (Lesinurad) tablets are for oral use and should be co-administered with a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, including allopurinol or febuxostat. Zurampic (Lesinurad) is recommended at 200 mg once daily. This is also the maximum daily dose. Zurampic (Lesinurad) should be taken by mouth, in the morning with food and water.

Zurampic (Lesinurad) causes an increase in renal uric acid excretion, which may lead to renal events including transient increases in serum creatinine, renal-related adverse reactions, and kidney stones. These renal events occurred more frequently in patients receiving Zurampic (Lesinurad) 400 mg, when used as monotherapy or in combination with a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. Kidney function is required to monitor.

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.


Blog Empty Image

Which of the following information is/are TRUE about preparing TPN formulation? [Select ALL THAT APPLY].

a. A lipid emulsion in a three-in-one admixture obscures the presence of calcium phosphate precipitates.
b. The solubility of the added calcium should be calculated from the volume at the time the calcium is added and should NOT be based upon the final volume.
c. If the amount of calcium or phosphate which must be added is likely to cause a precipitate, some or all of the calcium should be administered separately.
d. If a three-in-one admixture is medically necessary, then add the calcium before the lipid emulsion.
e. When adding calcium and phosphate to an admixture, the calcium should be added first.


Which of the following information is/are TRUE about preparing TPN formulation? [Select ALL THAT APPLY].

a. A lipid emulsion in a three-in-one admixture obscures the presence of calcium phosphate precipitates.
b. The solubility of the added calcium should be calculated from the volume at the time the calcium is added and should NOT be based upon the final volume.
c. If the amount of calcium or phosphate which must be added is likely to cause a precipitate, some or all of the calcium should be administered separately.
d. If a three-in-one admixture is medically necessary, then add the calcium before the lipid emulsion.
e. When adding calcium and phosphate to an admixture, the calcium should be added first.

Answer: (a,b,c,d). TPN solutions are made according to a variety of formulations and compounding protocols. Thus, there are possibilities of calcium phosphate precipitates and many other chemical incompatibilities. Precipitates could develop because of a number of factors such as: the concentration, pH, and phosphate content of the amino acid solutions; the calcium and phosphorous additives; the order of mixing; the mixing process; or the compounder. The presence of a lipid emulsion in the TPN admixture would obscure the presence of any precipitate.

Because of the potential for life threatening events, caution should be taken to ensure that precipitates have not formed in any parenteral nutrition admixtures.

1. The amounts of phosphorous and of calcium added to the admixture are critical. The solubility of the added calcium should be calculated from the volume at the time the calcium is added. It should not be based upon the final volume.

Some amino acid injections for TPN admixtures contain phosphate ions (as a phosphoric acid buffer). These phosphate ions and the volume at the time the phosphate is added should be considered when calculating the concentration of phosphate additives. Also, when adding calcium and phosphate to an admixture, the phosphate should be added first.

2. The line should be flushed between the addition of any potentially incompatible components.

3. A lipid emulsion in a three-in-one admixture obscures the presence of a precipitate. Therefore, if a lipid emulsion is needed, either:

(1). use a two-in-one admixture with the lipid infused separately, or
(2). if a three-in-one admixture is medically necessary, then add the calcium before the lipid emulsion and according to the recommendations in number 1 above.

If the amount of calcium or phosphate which must be added is likely to cause a precipitate, some or all of the calcium should be administered separately. Such separate infusions must be properly diluted and slowly infused to avoid serious adverse events related to the calcium.

4. A filter should be used when infusing either central or peripheral parenteral nutrition admixtures. Standards of practice vary, but the following is suggested: a 1.2 micron air eliminating filter for lipid containing admixtures, and a 0.22 micron air eliminating filter for nonlipid containing admixtures.

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.


Blog Empty Image

Thiazide diuretics should NOT be used as a first line treatment for hypertension in patient suffering from:

a. Hyperlipidemia
b. Heart failure
c. COPD
d. Gout
e. Peripheral artery disease


Thiazide diuretics should NOT be used as a first line treatment for hypertension in patient suffering from:

a. Hyperlipidemia
b. Heart failure
c. COPD
d. Gout
e. Peripheral artery disease

Answer :(d). Thiazide diuretics may increase the reabsorption of uric acid from renal tubules and may cause hyperuricemia. It should NOT be used as a first line treatment for hypertension in patient suffering from gout.

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.


Blog Empty Image

What is the principal advantage of Olinvyk, a newly approved opioid pain reliever, over available other opioid analgesics?

a. Cheap
b. Less chance of abuse
c. no dosage adjustments in patients with renal impairment
d. does not cause fatal respiratory depression
e. more patient compliance due to its oral dosage form


What is the principal advantage of Olinvyk, a newly approved opioid pain reliever, over available other opioid analgesics?

a. Cheap
b. Less chance of abuse
c. no dosage adjustments in patients with renal impairment
d. does not cause fatal respiratory depression
e. more patient compliance due to its oral dosage form

Answer: (c). Olinvyk is an opioid agonist that is the first new chemical entity in this IV drug class in decades and offers a differentiated profile that addresses a significant unmet need in the acute pain management landscape. Olinvyk delivers IV opioid efficacy with a rapid 2-5 minute onset of action. In addition, Olinvyk requires no dosage adjustments in patients with renal impairment, a large patient population with significant medical complications.

"Complex patients present unique challenges in the management of their postoperative acute pain, due to the presence of medical comorbidities that can complicate dosing," said Gregory Hammer, M.D., Professor of Anesthesiology, Perioperative and Pain Medicine, and of Pediatrics at Stanford University. "Olinvyk represents a new alternative for clinicians, due to its rapid onset of action, effective pain relief, and unique profile."

The active ingredient found in Olinvyk is Oliceridine. It is available in injection dosage form. Because of the risks of addiction, abuse, and misuse with opioids, even at recommended doses, reserve Olinvyk for use in patients for whom alternative treatment options [e.g., non-opioid analgesics or opioid combination products]:

1. Have not been tolerated, or are not expected to be tolerated
2. Have not provided adequate analgesia, or are not expected to provide adequate analgesia.

The cumulative total daily dose should not exceed 27 mg.

Dosage Administration:

1. Use the lowest effective dosage for the shortest duration consistent with individual patient treatment goals.

2. Individualize dosing based on the severity of pain, patient response, prior analgesic experience, and risk factors for addiction, abuse, and misuse.

3. Initiate treatment with a 1.5 mg dose.

4. For patient controlled analgesia (PCA), recommended demand dose is 0.35 mg, with a 6-minute lock-out. A demand dose of 0.5 mg may be considered.

Serious, life-threatening, or fatal respiratory depression may occur. Monitor for respiratory depression, especially during initiation or following a dose increase.
Concomitant use of Olinvyk with benzodiazepines or other CNS depressants, including alcohol, may result in profound sedation, respiratory depression, coma, and death.
Concomitant use with Serotonergic Drugs may result in serotonin syndrome. Discontinue Olinvyk if serotonin syndrome is suspected.

Nausea, vomiting, dizziness, headache and hypotension are reported side effects of the drug.

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.


Blog Empty Image

Rolapitant is indicated for the treatment of:

a. Hypertension
b. Diabetes
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Schizophrenia
e. Rheumatoid arthritis


Rolapitant is indicated for the treatment of:

a. Hypertension
b. Diabetes
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Schizophrenia
e. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer: (c). The U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved Rolapitant (Varubi) to prevent delayed phase chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (emesis). Rolapitant (Varubi) is approved in adults in combination with other drugs (antiemetic agents) that prevent nausea and vomiting associated with initial and repeat courses of vomit-inducing (emetogenic and highly emetogenic) cancer chemotherapy.

Rolapitant (Varubi) is a substance P/neurokinin-1 (NK-1) receptor antagonist. Activation of NK-1 receptors plays a central role in nausea and vomiting induced by certain cancer chemotherapies, particularly in the delayed phase. It is available in tablet form.

Rolapitant (Varubi) inhibits the CYP2D6 enzyme, which is responsible for metabolizing certain drugs. Varubi is contraindicated with the use of thioridazine, a drug metabolized by the CYP2D6 enzyme, because use of the two drugs together may increase the amount of thioridazine in the blood and cause an abnormal heart rhythm that can be serious.

The most common side effects in patients treated with Rolapitant (Varubi) include a low white blood cell count (neutropenia), hiccups, decreased appetite and dizziness.

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.




Free USA Shipping! No Minimum Order.
Free International Shipping! Over $200 or More.