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108 listings in all posts with a title or author like "Pharmacy exam"




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Which of the following is/are false positive tuberculin skin test reactions? [Select All that apply]

a. Infection with non-tuberculosis mycobacteria
b. Cutaneous anergy
c. Previous BCG vaccination
d. Very old TB infection
e. Recent live-virus vaccination


Which of the following is/are false positive tuberculin skin test reactions? [Select All that apply]

a. Infection with non-tuberculosis mycobacteria
b. Cutaneous anergy
c. Previous BCG vaccination
d. Very old TB infection
e. Recent live-virus vaccination

Answer: (a,c). The Mantoux tuberculin skin test (TST) is the standard method of determining whether a person is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Reliable administration and reading of the TST requires standardization of procedures, training, supervision, and practice.

The TST is performed by injecting 0.1 ml of tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) into the inner surface of the forearm. The injection should be made with a tuberculin syringe, with the needle bevel facing upward. The TST is an intradermal injection. When placed correctly, the injection should produce a pale elevation of the skin (a wheal) 6 to 10 mm in diameter.

The skin test reaction should be read between 48 and 72 hours after administration. A patient who does not return within 72 hours will need to be rescheduled for another skin test.

The reaction should be measured in millimeters of the induration (palpable, raised, hardened area or swelling). The reader should not measure erythema (redness). The diameter of the indurated area should be measured across the forearm (perpendicular to the long axis).

Skin test interpretation depends on two factors:

1. Measurement in millimeters of the induration
2. Person's risk of being infected with TB and of progression to disease if infected

What Are False-Positive Reactions?

Some persons may react to the TST even though they are not infected with M. tuberculosis. The causes of these false-positive reactions may include, but are not limited to, the following:

1. Infection with non-tuberculosis mycobacteria
2. Previous BCG vaccination
3. Incorrect method of TST administration
4. Incorrect interpretation of reaction
5. Incorrect bottle of antigen used

What Are False-Negative Reactions?

Some persons may not react to the TST even though they are infected with M. tuberculosis. The reasons for these false-negative reactions may include, but are not limited to, the following:

1. Cutaneous anergy (anergy is the inability to react to skin tests because of a weakened immune system)
2. Recent TB infection (within 8-10 weeks of exposure)
3. Very old TB infection (many years)
4. Very young age (less than 6 months old)
5. Recent live-virus vaccination (e.g., measles and smallpox)
6. Overwhelming TB disease
7. Some viral illnesses (e.g., measles and chicken pox)
8. Incorrect method of TST administration
9. Incorrect interpretation of reaction

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Thiazide diuretics should NOT be used as a first line treatment for hypertension in patient suffering from:

a. Hyperlipidemia
b. Heart failure
c. COPD
d. Gout
e. Peripheral artery disease


Thiazide diuretics should NOT be used as a first line treatment for hypertension in patient suffering from:

a. Hyperlipidemia
b. Heart failure
c. COPD
d. Gout
e. Peripheral artery disease

Answer :(d). Thiazide diuretics may increase the reabsorption of uric acid from renal tubules and may cause hyperuricemia. It should NOT be used as a first line treatment for hypertension in patient suffering from gout.

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Which of the following inhibits CYP 3A4?

a. Omeprazole
b. Lansoprazole
c. Pantoprazole
d. Rabeprazole
e. Esomeprazole


Which of the following inhibits CYP 3A4?

a. Omeprazole
b. Lansoprazole
c. Pantoprazole
d. Rabeprazole
e. Esomeprazole

Answer: (a) Below is the list of drugs that inhibit specifically CYP 3A4:

1. Amiodarone
2. Anastrozole
3. Azithromycin
4. Cannabinoids
5. Cimetidine
6. Clarithromycin
7. Clotrimazole
8. Cyclosporine
9. Danazol
10. Delavirdine
11. Dexamethasone
12. Diethyldithiocarbamate
13. Diltiazem
14. Dirithromycin
15. Disulfiram
16. Entacapone (high dose)
17. Erythromycin
18. Ethinyl estradiol
19. Fluconazole
20. Fluoxetine
21. Fluvoxamine
22. Gestodene
23. Grapefruit juice
24. Indinavir
25. Isoniazid
26. Ketoconazole
27. Metronidazole
28. Mibefradil
29. Miconazole
30. Nefazodone
31. Nelfinavir
32. Nevirapine
33. Norfloxacin
34. Norfluoxetine
35. Omeprazole
36. Oxiconazole
37. Paroxetine (weak)
38. Propoxyphene
39. Quinidine
40. Quinine
41. Quinupristin and Dalfopristin
42. Ranitidine
43. Ritonavir
44. Saquinavir
45. Sertindole
46. Sertraline
47. Troglitazone
48. Troleandomycin
49. Valproic acid

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Home ovulation tests usually detect a preovulatory surge in which of the following in the urine?

a. Prolactin
b. Oestrogen
c. Oxytocin
d. Progesterone
e. Luteinizing hormone


Home ovulation tests usually detect a preovulatory surge in which of the following in the urine?

a. Prolactin
b. Oestrogen
c. Oxytocin
d. Progesterone
e. Luteinizing hormone

Answer: (e). An ovulation home test is used by women to help determine the time in the menstrual cycle when getting pregnant is most likely. The test detects a rise in luteinizing hormone (LH) in the urine. A rise in this hormone signals the ovary to release the egg.

Try our Naplex QBank. www.pharmacyexam.com **Please note: This type of question will not show up in an MPJE. We are just posting to MPJE group for knowledge.


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What is a strain number of influenza virus in A/Texas/50/2012 (H3N2)?

a. A
b. Texas
c. 50
d. 2012
e. H3N2


What is a strain number of influenza virus in A/Texas/50/2012 (H3N2)?

a. A
b. Texas
c. 50
d. 2012
e. H3N2

Answer: (c) Influenza is named according to the type, the location of initial isolation, the strain designation, and the year of isolation. For example, A/Texas/50/2012 (H3N2), or H3N2, is influenza type A with origin in Texas, with strain No. 50, isolated in 2012 and of the H3N2 subtype.

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Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) inhibits the release which of the following?

a. Serotonin
b. Histamine
c. Acetylcholine
d. GABA
e. Dopamine


Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) inhibits the release which of the following?

a. Serotonin
b. Histamine
c. Acetylcholine
d. GABA
e. Dopamine

The active ingredient found in Botox is OnabotulinumtoxinA. It is an acetylcholine release inhibitor and a neuromuscular blocking agent.

Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) blocks neuromuscular transmission by binding to acceptor sites on motor or autonomic nerve terminals, entering the nerve terminals, and inhibiting the release of acetylcholine. This inhibition occurs as the neurotoxin cleaves SNAP-25, a protein integral to the successful docking and release of acetylcholine from vesicles situated within nerve endings.

When injected intramuscularly at therapeutic doses, Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) produces partial chemical denervation of the muscle resulting in a localized reduction in muscle activity. In addition, the muscle may atrophy, axonal sprouting may occur, and extrajunctional acetylcholine receptors may develop. There is evidence that reinnervation of the muscle may occur, thus slowly reversing muscle denervation produced by Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA).

When injected intradermally, Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) produces temporary chemical denervation of the sweat gland resulting in local reduction in sweating.

Following intradetrusor injection, Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) affects the efferent pathways of detrusor activity via inhibition of acetylcholine release.

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RxExam Naplex Question Bank Subscription

For limited time, first 5000 students will get introducing subscription price for $50 for 3 months; after the initial period the price will be $250 for six months and $300 for tweleve months.

Demo version does not require credit card or registration.

Username: guest
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What are signs and symptoms of preeclampsia?
 
I. a persistent headache
II. swelling of the face or hands
III. shoulder pain
 
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. All


What are signs and symptoms of preeclampsia?
 
I. a persistent headache
II. swelling of the face or hands
III. shoulder pain
 
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. All
 
Answer: (d) All. Preeclampsia is a condition during pregnancy where there is a sudden rise in blood pressure and swelling, mostly in the face, hands, and feet.
 
Signs and symptoms associated with preeclampsia:
 
1. a headache that persists
2. swelling of the face or hands
3. changes in eyesight
4. sudden weight gain
5. shoulder pain
6. nausea and vomiting
 
Source: www.pharmacyexam.com


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Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT headaches during menstrual period? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. A menstrual migraine headache may occur before, during, or after a period.
b. Acute migraine headaches may occur when the level of estrogen in the body rises significantly.
c. Around 10% of females who experience migraine report that menstruation is a trigger for these headaches.
d. Premenstrual syndrome headaches typically occur before a period begins.
e. Sensitivity to bright lights and noise is also reported with the menstrual migraine.


Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT headaches during menstrual period? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. A menstrual migraine headache may occur before, during, or after a period.
b. Acute migraine headaches may occur when the level of estrogen in the body rises significantly.
c. Around 10% of females who experience migraine report that menstruation is a trigger for these headaches.
d. Premenstrual syndrome headaches typically occur before a period begins.
e. Sensitivity to bright lights and noise is also reported with the menstrual migraine.
 
Answer: (a, d and e).  
 
A menstrual migraine headache may occur before, during, or after a period whereas premenstrual syndrome (PMS) headaches typically occur before a period begins.
 
Acute migraine headaches are normally reported when the level of estrogen in the body drops (not rises) significantly.
 
Around 60% (not 10%) of females who experience migraine report that menstruation is a trigger for these headaches.
 
Other symptoms of a menstrual migraine headache tend to include:
 
1. sensitivity to bright lights
2. sensitivity to noise
3. throbbing pain on one side of the head
4. nausea
5. vomiting
 
Source: www.pharmacyexam.com


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Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Oscillopsia? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. It is the sensation that the surrounding environment is constantly in motion when it is, in fact, stationary.
b. It is usually a symptom of conditions that affect eye movement or the eye's ability to stabilize images, especially during movement.
c. It often links to types of ataxia, which is a condition that causes abnormal or involuntary eye movement.
d. The American Psychological Association describe oscillopsia as "the sensation of perceiving oscillating movement of the environment."
e. It is usually associated with neurological conditions, such as multiple sclerosis.


Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Oscillopsia? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. It is the sensation that the surrounding environment is constantly in motion when it is, in fact, stationary.
b. It is usually a symptom of conditions that affect eye movement or the eye's ability to stabilize images, especially during movement.
c. It often links to types of ataxia, which is a condition that causes abnormal or involuntary eye movement.
d. The American Psychological Association describe oscillopsia as "the sensation of perceiving oscillating movement of the environment."
e. It is usually associated with neurological conditions, such as multiple sclerosis.

Answer: (a, b, d and e).  
 
Oscillopsia is the sensation that the surrounding environment is constantly in motion when it is, in fact, stationary. It usually occurs as a result of conditions that affect eye movement or alter how parts of the eye, inner ear, and brain stabilize images and maintain balance. The American Psychological Association describe oscillopsia as "the sensation of perceiving oscillating movement of the environment."
 
It often links to types of nystagmus (not ataxia), which is a condition that causes abnormal or involuntary eye movement.
 
Some of the most common conditions that experts have associated with oscillopsia include:
 
1. neurological conditions, such as seizures, multiple sclerosis, and superior oblique myokymia
2. brain or head injuries, especially bilateral vestibular cerebellar injuries
3. conditions, such as stroke, that affect the eye muscles or muscles around the eyes
4. conditions that affect or damage the inner ear, including Meniere's disease
5. conditions that cause brain inflammation, such as tumors or meningitis
 
Source: www.pharmacyexam.com