Based on the genetic make-up of SARS-CoV-2, which of the following drug classes is most likely to prove effective?

a. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
b. Protease inhibitors
c. Nucleoside analogues
d. Neuraminidase inhibitors
e. Calcium channel blockers

  Answer  

Based on the genetic make-up of SARS-CoV-2, which of the following drug classes is most likely to prove effective?

a. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
b. Protease inhibitors
c. Nucleoside analogues
d. Neuraminidase inhibitors
e. Calcium channel blockers

Answer: (b). The SARS-CoV-2 RNA codes for a pair of protease enzymes that are essential to production of viable virions upon release. Since protease inhibitors have been highly effective for treating patients with infections of human immunodeficiency virus and hepatitis C virus, that is the best choice.

Use of neuraminidase inhibitors (e.g., oseltamivir, peramivir, zanamivir) is not logical, since coronaviruses do not have a gene for neuraminidase.

Nucleoside analogues (e.g., acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin) would be expected to exert effects only at high levels since the coronavirus has an exonuclease that would recognize and remove the analogues when incorporated into the viral genome.

It is currently unknown as to whether angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin-2 receptor blockers (ARBs) are beneficial or harmful based on changes in the ACE2 protein involved in viral entry in lung tissue.

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The recommended dose of Olumiant in patients taking strong Organic Anion Transporter 3 (OAT3) inhibitors is _____________.

a. 1 mg once daily
b. 2 mg once daily
c. 3 mg once daily
d. 4 mg once daily
e. Cannot be used with OAT3 inhibitors

  Answer  

The recommended dose of Olumiant in patients taking strong Organic Anion Transporter 3 (OAT3) inhibitors is _____________.

a. 1 mg once daily
b. 2 mg once daily
c. 3 mg once daily
d. 4 mg once daily
e. Cannot be used with OAT3 inhibitors

Answer: (a). The active ingredient found in Olumiant is Baricitinib. It is a Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor indicated for the treatment of adult patients with moderately to severely active rheumatoid arthritis who have had an inadequate response to one or more TNF antagonist therapies.

1. The recommended dose of Olumiant (Baricitinib) in patients taking strong Organic Anion Transporter 3 (OAT3) inhibitors (e.g., probenecid) is 1 mg once daily.

2. The recommended dose of Olumiant (Baricitinib) in patients with moderate renal impairment is 1 mg once daily.

3. Olumiant (Baricitinib) is not recommended in patients with severe renal impairment.

4. Olumiant (Baricitinib) is not recommended in patients with severe hepatic impairment.

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Which of the following statements would indicate that a patient understands why he is taking Olumiant?

a. "I have vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause."
b. "I have rheumatoid arthritis."
c. "I have hypercalcemia."
d. "I have Paget's disease of bone."
e. "I have migraine headaches associated with menopause."

  Answer  

Which of the following statements would indicate that a patient understands why he is taking Olumiant?

a. "I have vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause."
b. "I have rheumatoid arthritis."
c. "I have hypercalcemia."
d. "I have Paget's disease of bone."
e. "I have migraine headaches associated with menopause."

Answer: b

The active ingredient found in Olumiant is Baricitinib. It is a Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor indicated for the treatment of adult patients with moderately to severely active rheumatoid arthritis who have had an inadequate response to one or more TNF antagonist therapies.

The recommended dose of Olumiant is 2 mg once daily.

Upper respiratory tract infections, nausea, herpes simplex, and herpes zoster are commonly reported side effects of the drug.

The drug also has shown promising result for the treatment of Covid-19 infection when administered simultaneously with Remdesivir.Olumiant (Baricitinib) in combination with Veklury (Remdesivir) cuts the median recovery time by about a day, compared to patients treated with Remdesivir alone.

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Which of the following statements is/are TRUR ABOUT Covid-19? [Select ALL THAT APPLY]

a. COVID-19 infection often begins with malaise, dry cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and feeling of fever.
b. Covid-19 infection has incubation period of 2- to 14-day.
c. In contrast to the sudden onset people report with influenza, progression of symptoms with Covid-19 virus have a slower onset.
d. During early phases of viral spread, symptoms began an average of 7 days before patients sought medical or emergent care.
e. Fever occurs in 89% Covid-19 symptomatic patients.

  Answer  

Which of the following statements is/are TRUR ABOUT Covid-19? [Select ALL THAT APPLY]

a. COVID-19 infection often begins with malaise, dry cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and feeling of fever.
b. Covid-19 infection has incubation period of 2- to 14-day.
c. In contrast to the sudden onset people report with influenza, progression of symptoms with Covid-19 virus have a slower onset.
d. During early phases of viral spread, symptoms began an average of 7 days before patients sought medical or emergent care.
e. Fever occurs in 89% Covid-19 symptomatic patients.

Answer: (a,b,c,e) The COVID-19 often begins with malaise, dry cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and feeling of fever. It progresses over an 11- to 14-day period. It has incubation period of 2- to 14-day. Some patients have had nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. In contrast to the sudden onset people report with influenza, progression of symptoms with SARS-CoV-2 have a slower onset. During early phases of viral spread, symptoms began an average of 3.5 days (not 7 days) before patients sought medical or emergent care. Fever occurs in almost all symptomatic patients (89%), cough is very common (68%), and some patients have fatigue (38%), sputum production (33%), shortness of breath (19%), sore throat (14%), and headache (14%).

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Liver toxicity with acetaminophen may occur and is a serious, dose-dependent effect. The maximum recommended dosage is:

a. 15mg/kg/day
b. 30mg/kg/day
c. 45mg/kg/day
d. 75mg/kg/day
e. 100mg/kg/day

  Answer  

Liver toxicity with acetaminophen may occur and is a serious, dose-dependent effect. The maximum recommended dosage is:

a. 15mg/kg/day
b. 30mg/kg/day
c. 45mg/kg/day
d. 75mg/kg/day
e. 100mg/kg/day

Answer: (d). Liver toxicity with acetaminophen may occur and is a serious, dose-dependent effect. The maximum recommended dosage is 75 mg/kg/day (adults not to exceed 4 g/d), and products carry warnings about exceeding this dose.

Signs associated with acetaminophen toxicity can mimic influenza symptoms and may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and excessive sweating.

This may lead parents and caregivers to administer more medication to the child. Care should be taken not to exceed this threshold by administering higher doses more frequently than recommended.

In 2011 and 2012, the manufacturer of brand-name Tylenol products voluntarily reduced the maximum daily dosage to 3000 mg (6 tablets), with the dosing interval changed from 2 tablets every 4 to 6 hours to 2 tablets every 6 hours; the maximum daily dosage for Regular Strength Tylenol has been reduced to 3250 mg.

However, generic manufacturers may still have a maximum dose of 4000 mg on the product label.

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What is a strain number of influenza virus in A/Texas/50/2012 (H3N2)?

a. A
b. Texas
c. 50
d. 2012
e. H3N2

  Answer  

What is a strain number of influenza virus in A/Texas/50/2012 (H3N2)?

a. A
b. Texas
c. 50
d. 2012
e. H3N2

Answer: (c) Influenza is named according to the type, the location of initial isolation, the strain designation, and the year of isolation. For example, A/Texas/50/2012 (H3N2), or H3N2, is influenza type A with origin in Texas, with strain No. 50, isolated in 2012 and of the H3N2 subtype.

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Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) inhibits the release which of the following?

a. Serotonin
b. Histamine
c. Acetylcholine
d. GABA
e. Dopamine

  Answer  

Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) inhibits the release which of the following?

a. Serotonin
b. Histamine
c. Acetylcholine
d. GABA
e. Dopamine

The active ingredient found in Botox is OnabotulinumtoxinA. It is an acetylcholine release inhibitor and a neuromuscular blocking agent.

Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) blocks neuromuscular transmission by binding to acceptor sites on motor or autonomic nerve terminals, entering the nerve terminals, and inhibiting the release of acetylcholine. This inhibition occurs as the neurotoxin cleaves SNAP-25, a protein integral to the successful docking and release of acetylcholine from vesicles situated within nerve endings.

When injected intramuscularly at therapeutic doses, Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) produces partial chemical denervation of the muscle resulting in a localized reduction in muscle activity. In addition, the muscle may atrophy, axonal sprouting may occur, and extrajunctional acetylcholine receptors may develop. There is evidence that reinnervation of the muscle may occur, thus slowly reversing muscle denervation produced by Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA).

When injected intradermally, Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) produces temporary chemical denervation of the sweat gland resulting in local reduction in sweating.

Following intradetrusor injection, Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) affects the efferent pathways of detrusor activity via inhibition of acetylcholine release.

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RxExam Naplex Question Bank Subscription

For limited time, first 5000 students will get introducing subscription price for $50 for 3 months; after the initial period the price will be $250 for six months and $300 for tweleve months.

Demo version does not require credit card or registration.

Username: guest
Password: guest

To view demo version please click here: Demo Version

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What are signs and symptoms of preeclampsia?
 
I. a persistent headache
II. swelling of the face or hands
III. shoulder pain
 
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. All

  Answer  

What are signs and symptoms of preeclampsia?
 
I. a persistent headache
II. swelling of the face or hands
III. shoulder pain
 
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. All
 
Answer: (d) All. Preeclampsia is a condition during pregnancy where there is a sudden rise in blood pressure and swelling, mostly in the face, hands, and feet.
 
Signs and symptoms associated with preeclampsia:
 
1. a headache that persists
2. swelling of the face or hands
3. changes in eyesight
4. sudden weight gain
5. shoulder pain
6. nausea and vomiting
 
Source: www.pharmacyexam.com

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Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT headaches during menstrual period? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. A menstrual migraine headache may occur before, during, or after a period.
b. Acute migraine headaches may occur when the level of estrogen in the body rises significantly.
c. Around 10% of females who experience migraine report that menstruation is a trigger for these headaches.
d. Premenstrual syndrome headaches typically occur before a period begins.
e. Sensitivity to bright lights and noise is also reported with the menstrual migraine.

  Answer  

Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT headaches during menstrual period? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. A menstrual migraine headache may occur before, during, or after a period.
b. Acute migraine headaches may occur when the level of estrogen in the body rises significantly.
c. Around 10% of females who experience migraine report that menstruation is a trigger for these headaches.
d. Premenstrual syndrome headaches typically occur before a period begins.
e. Sensitivity to bright lights and noise is also reported with the menstrual migraine.
 
Answer: (a, d and e).  
 
A menstrual migraine headache may occur before, during, or after a period whereas premenstrual syndrome (PMS) headaches typically occur before a period begins.
 
Acute migraine headaches are normally reported when the level of estrogen in the body drops (not rises) significantly.
 
Around 60% (not 10%) of females who experience migraine report that menstruation is a trigger for these headaches.
 
Other symptoms of a menstrual migraine headache tend to include:
 
1. sensitivity to bright lights
2. sensitivity to noise
3. throbbing pain on one side of the head
4. nausea
5. vomiting
 
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