PCAT® Sample Questions

 

1. Which of the following organelles helps green plants synthesize organic compounds like starch in the presence of sunlight?

a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplast
c. Ribosomes
d. Golgi body


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1. (b) Green plants, with the help of sunlight and in the presence of enzymes, synthesize organic compounds like starch from inorganic compounds like CO2 and H2O. This is known as photosynthesis. Chloroplast is the organelle to perform photosynthesis. Plants that are devoid of chloroplast cannot synthesize starch.


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2. Which of the following is described as the "power house of the cell"?

a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Ribosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. Vacuoles


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2. (c) Mitochondria is known as the "power house of the cell". It is involved in the continuous production of energy. It releases necessary energy for different functions of the cell through processes like respiration, electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.


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3. Virus should be classified as:

a. Akaryotic
b. Eukaryotic
c. Prokaryotic
d. Nokaryotic


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3. (a) Each cell has two main components - Cytoplasm and the nucleus. Usually there is a nucleus in the cell. Organisms without any cytoplasmic organizations and devoid of definite nuclear material are grouped as Akaryota. (e.g. Virus) Organisms having a primitive type of nucleus in cell, are classified Prokaryota. (e.g. Bacteria and Blue green algae.) Organisms having a cell with a well developed nucleus are grouped as Eukaryota. (e.g. Fungi-yeast, mushroom).


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4. In the process of Mitosis, if the number of chromosomes in the mother cell is designated as 2n, how many chromosomes will be present in each daughter cell?

a. 2n
b. n
c. 4n
d. 8n


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4. (a) Cell division is a very complex process. There are two main types of cell division:

1. Mitosis
2. Meiosis

1 Mitosis: In this type of cell division, chromosomes are equally distributed in each daughter cell. As a result, the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells is the same as that in the mother cell. It is also known as equational division. (e.g. Somatic cells division)

2. Meiosis: In this type of cell division, chromosomes are divided in half of the original mother cells, therefore the daughter cells consist of half the number of chromosomes that are in the mother cell. (e.g. reproductive or sex cells division)


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5. Nitrogen fixing bacteria on root nodules of Leguminous plants are known as:

a. Azobacteria
b. Nanobacteria
c. Rhizobium bacteria
d. Mycobacteria


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5. (c) Nitrogen fixing bacteria on root nodules of Leguminous plants are known as Rhizobium. They fix the atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into ammonia. The nitrogen fixing bacteria are also known as nitrifying bacteria.

Azobacteria are present in the soil. They convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates and nitrites. In this way, they increase the fertility of the soil. These ammonium nitrates and nitrites are then absorbed by plants to obtain nitrogen.


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6. Which of the following nitrogen bases is present in RNA but absent in DNA?

a. Cytosine
b. Uracil
c. Guanine
d. Adenine


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6. (b) RNA consists of ribose pentose sugar. Unlike DNA, it consists of only one polynucleotide chain. It also contains two purine and pyrimidine bases. Uracil (U) is the nitrogen base which is present in RNA but absent in DNA. Thus RNA contains Adenine (A) and Guanine (G) as purine bases, and Cytosine (C) and Uracil (U) as pyrimidine bases.


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7. Which of the following polysaccharides is largely stored in the liver and muscles?

a. Cellulose
b. Starch
c. Glycogen
d. Inulin


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7. (c) Glycogen is considered the principal storage form of glucose and is found mainly in the liver and muscle, with kidney and intestines adding minor storage sites. Glycogen is formed by the liver from glucose in the bloodstream and is stored in the liver. Glycogen is also produced by and stored in muscle cells; during short periods of strenuous activity, energy is released in the muscles by direct conversion of glycogen to lactic acid. During normal activity, energy is released by metabolic oxidation of glucose to lactic acid. Glycogenesis (formation of glycogen from glucose) and glycogenolysis (break down of glycogen into glucose) are two principal mechanisms by which blood glucose level has been maintained.


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8. Which of the following provides the necessary freedom for bones as well as protect joints from external injury and bones from dislocation?

a. Cartilage
b. Ligaments
c. Tendons
d. Muscles


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8. (b) Ligaments are strong flexible white fibrous bands. They bind the articular surfaces of bones together. They provide necessary freedom for the bones as well as protect joints from external injury and bones from dislocation. Tendons are white bands which join muscles with bones while ligaments hold bones together at joints and are inelastic.


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9. Which of the following lipids in a cell membrane acts as a selective barrier for controlling the exit and entry of substances into and out of the cell?

a. Cholesterol
b. Glycolipids
c. Phospholipids
d. Lipoproteins


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9. (c) The primary type of lipids found in the cell membrane are phospholipids, cholesterol and glycolipids. Out of these, phospholipids play an important role in controlling the movement of substances into and out of the cell. In general, lipid soluble substances are allowed to move into the cell whereas water soluble molecules are restricted or not allowed to pass through the cell membrane.


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10. Bile mainly helps in the digestion of:

a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
d. Bile pigments


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10. (a) Bile (or gall) is a bitter, greenish-yellow alkaline fluid secreted by the liver of most vertebrates. It helps in the complete digestion of fats by reducing surface tension. It also activates the enzyme lipase. It serves as a good solvent for fats and fat-splitting enzymes. Bile also helps in absorption of carbohydrates, fats, fat soluble vitamins and proteins.


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11. The region in space where an electron is likely to be found is called a(n):

a. Axis
b. Cloud
c. Orbital
d. Configuration


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11. (c) The region in space where an electron is likely to be found is called an orbital. There are different kinds of orbitals with different sizes and shapes. The orbital at the lowest energy level is defined as a 1s orbital. It is a sphere with its center at the nucleus of the atom. The next higher energy level is called a 2s orbital. It is larger than a 1s orbital. Since it has a higher energy level, it has lower stability compared to a 1s orbital. This is because the average distance between the nucleus and electrons in a 2s orbital is greater than in a 1s orbital. The next three orbitals are of equal energy, known as 2p orbitals. They are dumbbell-shaped. They are further differentiated by the names 2px, 2py, and 2pz, where the x, y, and z refer to the corresponding axes.


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12. Which of the following atoms has the highest electronegativity?

a. Cl
b. Br
c. N
d. F


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12. (d) In the covalent bond, two atoms are joined by sharing electrons. Both nuclei are held by the same electron cloud. However, in most cases the two nuclei do not share the electrons equally. This happens when one atom has more electron withdrawing power than the other atom. At this time the electron cloud is denser on one atom. This result in one end of the bond being relatively negative and the other end being relatively positive. Such a bond is said to be a polar bond or to possess polarity. The bond possesses polarity when joins atoms have different tendency to attract electrons. This property of the atom is called electronegativity. Out of the given choices, fluorine (F) possess the highest electronegativity. F > O > Cl, N > Br > C, H

13. (c) The molecular formula for methyl chloride is CH3Cl. The mass of a chlorine atom in methyl chloride is 35.5 gm/mole. The molecular weight of methyl chloride is 50.5 gm/mole (1C = 12, 3H = 3 and 1Cl = 35.5). Therefore, the % mass of chlorine in methyl chloride will be 35.5/50.5 = 70%


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13. What would be the percentage mass of chlorine in a molecule of methyl chloride? (C = 12 gm/mole, H = 1 gm/mole, Cl = 35.5 gm/mole).

a. 18 %
b. 50 %
c. 70 %
d. 12 %


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13. (c) The molecular formula for methyl chloride is CH3Cl. The mass of a chlorine atom in methyl chloride is 35.5 gm/mole. The molecular weight of methyl chloride is 50.5 gm/mole (1C = 12, 3H = 3 and 1Cl = 35.5). Therefore, the % mass of chlorine in methyl chloride will be 35.5/50.5 = 70%


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14. Which of the following is found to be different in isotopes of the same chemical element?

a. Protons
b. Neutrons
c. Electrons
d. Atomic number


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14. (b) Isotopes are defined as forms of the same chemical element that differ only by the number of neutrons in their nucleus. Most elements have more than one naturally occurring isotope. The atomic number "Z" is the same in such elements, however their atomic mass "A" is different due to differ numbers of neutrons in the nucleus of the atom.


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15. Which of the following groups of the periodic table contains alkali metals?

a. Group I A
b. Group II A
c. Group VII A
d. Group VIII A


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15. (a) The alkali metals, found in group 1 of the periodic table (formerly known as group IA), are very reactive metals that do not occur freely in nature. These metals have only one electron in their outer shell. Therefore, they are ready to lose that one electron in ionic bonding with other elements. As with all metals, the alkali metals are malleable, ductile, and are good conductors of heat and electricity. The alkali metals are softer than most other metals. Cesium and francium are the most reactive elements in this group. Alkali metals can explode if they are exposed to water. The Alkali Metals are: lithium (Li), Sodium (Na), Potassium (K), Rubidium (Rb), Cesium (Cs), Francium (Fr).


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17. Home ovulation tests usually detect a preovulatory surge in which of the following in the urine?

a. Prolactin
b. Oestrogen
c. Oxytocin
d. Progesterone
e. Luteinizing hormone


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17. Home ovulation tests usually detect a preovulatory surge in which of the following in the urine?

a. Prolactin
b. Oestrogen
c. Oxytocin
d. Progesterone
e. Luteinizing hormone

Answer: (e). An ovulation home test is used by women to help determine the time in the menstrual cycle when getting pregnant is most likely. The test detects a rise in luteinizing hormone (LH) in the urine. A rise in this hormone signals the ovary to release the egg.


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18. Which of the following information is TRUE ABOUT anaerobic respiration? (Select All that apply)
 
a. Waste products are carbon dioxide and water.
b. It may produce between 36 and 38 ATP molecules.
c. In animals, including humans, the anaerobic cycle produces lactic acid, which causes muscle cramps.
d. The fermentation process in anaerobic respiration is roughly 5 percent as effective as what cells can do when they have access to oxygen.
e. In bacteria, it may produce nitrite, nitrogen gas, hydrogen sulfide, methane and acetic acid.



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18. Which of the following information is TRUE ABOUT anaerobic respiration? (Select All that apply)
 
a. Waste products are carbon dioxide and water.
b. It may produce between 36 and 38 ATP molecules.
c. In animals, including humans, the anaerobic cycle produces lactic acid, which causes muscle cramps.
d. The fermentation process in anaerobic respiration is roughly 5 percent as effective as what cells can do when they have access to oxygen.
e. In bacteria, it may produce nitrite, nitrogen gas, hydrogen sulfide, methane and acetic acid.
 
Answer (c, d and e). "Anaerobic" means without oxygen, and respiration refers to the processes in a cell that convert biochemical energy, such as that found in glucose, into usable energy in the form of ATP. Waste products like carbon dioxide are also produced during this process.

The fermentation process in anaerobic respiration is roughly 5 percent as effective as what cells can do when they have access to oxygen. An aerobic cycle may produce between 36 and 38 ATP molecules, while anaerobic respiration only creates 2 ATP molecules.

Since muscles often run out of oxygen during extreme exertion, anaerobic respiration keeps them running. In animals, including humans, the anaerobic cycle produces lactic acid, which causes muscle cramps. In order for these cramps to stop, oxygen must find its way back into the muscle again so these cells can switch back to aerobic respiration and stop building up lactic acid.

Anaerobic respiration is also common in bacteria that live in environments without oxygen; depending on the bacteria, the products of their respiration include nitrite, nitrogen gas, hydrogen sulfide, methane and acetic acid.


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19. Which of the following best describes the Capitation System?
 
a. Risk free income for healthcare service providers.
b. Healthcare provider may get more incentive to provide an extended treatment to a patient.
c. A fixed amount of money per patient per unit of time paid in advance to the physician for the delivery of health care services.
d. A patient gets more benefit if he/she gets services from Healthcare provider receiving reimbursement through capitation.
e. Free prescription benefits to patients.



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19. Which of the following best describes the Capitation System?
 
a. Risk free income for healthcare service providers.
b. Healthcare provider may get more incentive to provide an extended treatment to a patient.
c. A fixed amount of money per patient per unit of time paid in advance to the physician for the delivery of health care services.
d. A patient gets more benefit if he/she gets services from Healthcare provider receiving reimbursement through capitation.
e. Free prescription benefits to patients.

Answer: Capitation payments are used by managed care organizations to control health care costs. Capitation payments control use of health care resources by putting the physician at financial risk for services provided to patients. At the same time, in order to ensure that patients do not receive suboptimal care through under-utilization of health care services, managed care organizations measure rates of resource utilization in physician practices. These reports are made available to the public as a measure of health care quality, and can be linked to financial rewards, such as bonuses.
 
Capitation is a fixed amount of money per patient per unit of time paid in advance to the physician for the delivery of health care services. The actual amount of money paid is determined by the ranges of services that are provided, the number of patients involved, and the period of time during which the services are provided. Capitation rates are developed using local costs and average utilization of services and therefore can vary from one region of the country to another. In many plans, a risk pool is established as a percentage of the capitation payment. Money in this risk pool is withheld from the physician until the end of the fiscal year. If the health plan does well financially, the money is paid to the physician; if the health plan does poorly, the money is kept to pay the deficit expenses.
 
When the primary care provider signs a capitation agreement, a list of specific services that must be provided to patients is included in the contract. The amount of the capitation will be determined in part by the number of services provided and will vary from health plan to health plan, but most capitation payment plans for primary care services include the following:
 
·         Preventive, diagnostic, and treatment services
·         Injections, immunizations, and medications administered in the office
·         Outpatient laboratory tests done either in the office or at a designated laboratory
·         Health education and counseling services performed in the office
·         Routine vision and hearing screening


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20. Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Essential Fatty Acids? [Select ALL That Apply]
 
a. Linoleic and alpha-linolenic are essential fatty acids.
b. Arachidonic acid is classified as ‘conditionally essential’ fatty acid.
c. Ideally, in the diet, the ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids should be between 1:1 and 4:1.
d. Excessive intake of omega-6 fatty acids can cause the deficiency of omega-3 fatty acids.



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20. Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Essential Fatty Acids? [Select ALL That Apply]
 
a. Linoleic and alpha-linolenic are essential fatty acids.
b. Arachidonic acid is classified as ‘conditionally essential’ fatty acid.
c. Ideally, in the diet, the ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids should be between 1:1 and 4:1.
d. Excessive intake of omega-6 fatty acids can cause the deficiency of omega-3 fatty acids.

Answer (a, b, c and d). Essential fatty acids, or EFAs, are fatty acids that humans and other animals must ingest because the body requires them for good health but cannot synthesize them.
 
Only two fatty acids are known to be essential for humans: alpha-linolenic acid (an omega-3 fatty acid) and linoleic acid (an omega-6 fatty acid). Some other fatty acids are sometimes classified as "conditionally essential," meaning that they can become essential under some developmental or disease conditions; examples include docosahexaenoic acid and gamma-linolenic acid.
 
It is not only important to incorporate good sources of omega-3 and omega-6s in a diet, but also consume these fatty acids in the proper ratio. Omega-6 fatty acids compete with omega-3 fatty acids for use in the body, and therefore excessive intake of omega-6 fatty acids can inhibit the use of omega-3 fatty acids by the body.
 
Ideally, the ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids should be between 1:1 and 4:1. Instead, most Americans consume these fatty acids at a ratio of omega-6: omega-3 between 10:1 and 25:1, and are consequently unable to reap the benefits of omega-3s.
 
This imbalance is due to a reliance on processed foods and oils, which are now common in the Western diet. To combat this issue it is necessary to eat a low-fat diet with minimal processed foods and with naturally occurring omega-3 fatty acids. A lower omega-6: omega-3 ratio is desirable for reducing the risk of many chronic diseases.
 
Arachidonic acid is not one of the essential fatty acids. However, it does become essential if there is a deficiency in linoleic acid or if there is an inability to convert linoleic acid to arachidonic acid.


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21. Which of the following is/are Type(s) of Refractive Errors? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. myopia
b. hyperopia
c. Astigmatism
d. Presbyopia
 
a. a only
b. a and b only
c. a, b and c only
d. a, b, c and d


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21. Which of the following is/are Type(s) of Refractive Errors? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. myopia
b. hyperopia
c. Astigmatism
d. Presbyopia
 
a. a only
b. a and b only
c. a, b and c only
d. a, b, c and d
 
Answer: (d)  All. Refractive errors happen when the shape of your eye keeps light from focusing correctly on your retina (a light-sensitive layer of tissue at the back of your eye).
Each type of refractive error is different, but they all make it hard to see clearly.

Nearsightedness (myopia):

Nearsightedness makes far-away objects look blurry. It happens when the eyeball grows too long from front to back, or when there are problems with the shape of the cornea (clear front layer of the eye) or the lens (an inner part of the eye that helps the eye focus). These problems make light focus in front of the retina, instead of on it.
Nearsightedness usually starts between ages 6 and 14. Children who spend more time outdoors during these years are less likely to develop nearsightedness, but experts aren’t sure why.

Severe nearsightedness (also called high myopia) can increase the risk of other eye conditions, like retinal detachment (when the retina is pulled away from its normal position).

Farsightedness (hyperopia):

Farsightedness makes nearby objects look blurry. It happens when the eyeball grows too short from front to back, or when there are problems with the shape of the cornea or lens. These problems make light focus behind the retina, instead of on it.

People with farsightedness are usually born with it.

Astigmatism:

Astigmatism can make far-away and nearby objects look blurry or distorted. It happens when the cornea or lens has a different shape than normal, which makes light bend differently as it enters the eye.

Some people with astigmatism are born with it, but many people develop it as children or young adults. People with astigmatism often have another refractive error, like nearsightedness or farsightedness.

Presbyopia:

Presbyopia makes it hard for middle-aged and older adults to see things up close. As you age, the lens in your eye gets harder and less flexible and stops focusing light correctly on the retina.

Everyone gets presbyopia as they get older, usually after age 45. Many people have another refractive error in addition to presbyopia.
 
Source: www.pharmacyexam.com
Citation: https://www.nei.nih.gov/learn-about-eye-health/eye-conditions-and-diseases/refractive-errors/types-refractive-errors


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22. Which of the following types of glaucoma is NOT CONSIDERED a primary glaucoma?
 
a. Open-angle
b. Congenital
c. Pigmentary
d. Angle-closure


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22. Which of the following types of glaucoma is NOT CONSIDERED a primary glaucoma?
 
a. Open-angle
b. Congenital
c. Pigmentary
d. Angle-closure

Answer: (c).  Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that are usually characterized by damage to the optic nerve and gradual vision loss that starts with losing peripheral (side) vision. People who have high eye pressure are at higher risk for glaucoma.
 
Primary glaucomas:
When experts don’t know what causes a type of glaucoma, that type is called a primary glaucoma.
 
Pigmentary glaucoma is considered secondary glaucoma.
 
1. Open-angle glaucoma

Treatments: Medicines, laser treatment, surgery 
 
Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type in the United States, where 9 in 10 people with glaucoma have the open-angle type. Many people don’t have any symptoms until they start to lose their vision, and people may not notice vision loss right away.
 
Experts aren’t sure what causes open-angle glaucoma, but it may be caused by pressure building up in your eye. If the fluid in your eye can’t drain fast enough, it creates pressure that pushes on a nerve in the back of your eye (the optic nerve). 
 
Over time, the pressure damages the optic nerve, which affects your vision. This can eventually lead to blindness — in fact, open-angle glaucoma causes almost 2 in 10 cases of blindness in African Americans. People with high blood pressure are also at higher risk for this type.
 
2. Normal-tension glaucoma

Treatments: Medicines, laser treatment, surgery
 
Normal-tension glaucoma is a type of open-angle glaucoma that happens in people with normal eye pressure. About 1 in 3 people with open-angle glaucoma have the normal-tension type. 
 
You may be at higher risk for normal-tension glaucoma if you:
 

  • Are of Japanese ancestry
  • Have a family history of normal-tension glaucoma
  • Have had certain heart problems, like an irregular heartbeat
  • Have low blood pressure
 
Experts don’t know what causes normal-tension glaucoma, but research shows that treatments that lower eye pressure can help slow the disease and stop vision loss.
 
3. Angle-closure glaucoma

Treatments: Medicines, laser treatment
 
Angle-closure glaucoma, also called narrow-angle or acute glaucoma, is a medical emergency. Go to the doctor or emergency room immediately if you suddenly have:
 
  • Intense pain in your eye
  • Nausea
  • Red eyes
  • Blurred vision
 
In this type of glaucoma, the outer edge of the iris (the colored part of your eye) blocks fluid from draining out of the front of the eye. The fluid builds up quickly, causing a sudden increase in eye pressure. If it’s not treated, angle-closure glaucoma can cause blindness in just a few days.
 
A doctor can use laser treatment and give you medicine to help the fluid drain. This can lower eye pressure and protect your vision. Your doctor might treat both eyes to prevent future problems, even if you only have angle-closure glaucoma in one eye.
 
Another type of angle-closure glaucoma, sometimes called slow or chronic angle-closure glaucoma, happens more slowly and might not have any symptoms. Your doctor can treat this type with medicines, laser treatments, or surgery.
 
4. Congenital glaucoma

Treatments: Medicines, surgery
 
Some babies are born with glaucoma — this is called congenital glaucoma. About 1 out of 10,000 babies born in the United States have a defect (problem) in the eye that keeps fluid from draining normally.
 
In these cases, you can usually notice the symptoms right away. Children with congenital glaucoma:
 
  • Have cloudy eyes
  • Are sensitive to light
  • Make extra tears
  • May have eyes that are larger than normal
 
Surgery works very well to treat congenital glaucoma. If a doctor does surgery early enough, children with congenital glaucoma usually won’t have any permanent vision loss.
 
Several other types of glaucoma can also develop in children. Any glaucoma that affects babies or children is called pediatric glaucoma.
 
Source: www.pharmacyexam.com
Citation: https://www.nei.nih.gov/learn-about-eye-health/eye-conditions-and-diseases/glaucoma/types-glaucoma


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23. _______________ glaucoma happens when the eye makes extra blood vessels that cover the part of your eye where fluid would normally drain.
 
a. Neovascular
b. Pigmentary
c. Exfoliation
d. Uveitic


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23. _______________ glaucoma happens when the eye makes extra blood vessels that cover the part of your eye where fluid would normally drain.
 
a. Neovascular
b. Pigmentary
c. Exfoliation
d. Uveitic

Answer: (a).  Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that are usually characterized by damage to the optic nerve and gradual vision loss that starts with losing peripheral (side) vision. People who have high eye pressure are at higher risk for glaucoma.
 
Primary glaucomas:

When experts don’t know what causes a type of glaucoma, that type is called a primary glaucoma.
 
Secondary glaucomas:

Sometimes glaucoma is caused by another medical condition — this is called secondary glaucoma.
 
1. Neovascular glaucoma

Treatments: Medicines, laser treatment, surgery
 
Neovascular glaucoma happens when the eye makes extra blood vessels that cover the part of your eye where fluid would normally drain. It’s usually caused by another medical condition, like diabetes or high blood pressure. 
 
If you have neovascular glaucoma, you may notice:
 

  • Pain or redness in your eye
  • Vision loss
 
This type of glaucoma can be hard to treat. Doctors need to treat the underlying cause (like diabetes or high blood pressure) and use glaucoma treatments to lower the eye pressure that results from it.
 
2. Pigmentary glaucoma
 
Treatments: Medicines, laser treatment, surgery
 
Pigment dispersion syndrome happens when the pigment (color) from your iris (the colored part of your eye) flakes off. The loose pigment may block fluid from draining out of your eye, which can increase your eye pressure and cause pigmentary glaucoma.
 
Young, white men who are near-sighted are more likely to have pigment dispersion syndrome than others. If you have this condition, you may have blurry vision or see rainbow-colored rings around lights, especially when you exercise. 
 
Doctors can treat pigmentary glaucoma by lowering eye pressure, but there currently isn’t a way to prevent pigment from detaching from the iris.
 
3. Exfoliation glaucoma

Treatments: Medicines, laser treatment, surgery
 
Exfoliation glaucoma (sometimes called pseudoexfoliation) is a type of open-angle glaucoma that happens in some people with exfoliation syndrome, a condition that causes extra material to detach from parts of the eye and block fluid from draining. 
 
Recent research shows that genetics may play a role in exfoliation glaucoma. You are at higher risk if someone else in your family has exfoliation glaucoma.
 
This type of glaucoma can progress faster than primary open-angle glaucoma, and often causes higher eye pressure. This means that it’s especially important for people who are at risk to get eye exams regularly. 
 
4. Uveitic glaucoma

Treatments: Medicines, surgery
 
Uveitic glaucoma can happen in people who have uveitis, a condition that causes inflammation (irritation and swelling) in the eye. About 2 in 10 people with uveitis will develop uveitic glaucoma.
 
Experts aren’t sure how uveitis causes uveitic glaucoma, but they think that it may happen because uveitis can cause inflammation and scar tissue in the middle of the eye. This may damage or block the part of the eye where fluid drains out, causing high eye pressure and leading to uveitic glaucoma. 
 
In some cases, the medicines that treat uveitis may also cause uveitic glaucoma or make it worse. This is because corticosteroid medicines may cause increased eye pressure as a side effect.


Source: www.pharmacyexam.com
Citation: https://www.nei.nih.gov/learn-about-eye-health/eye-conditions-and-diseases/glaucoma/types-glaucoma


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24. Pharmacists should be able to recognise red flag signs of Postnatal depression (PND) and refer these patients immediately. Which of the following is/are Red flag signs or symptoms for postnatal depression?
 
I. Recent significant change in mental state or emergence of new psychiatric symptoms
II. New thoughts or acts of violent self-harm.
III. New and persistent expressions of incompetency as a mother, such as being over-critical for not recognising what the baby needs.
 
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. All


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24. Pharmacists should be able to recognise red flag signs of Postnatal depression (PND) and refer these patients immediately. Which of the following is/are Red flag signs or symptoms for postnatal depression?
 
I. Recent significant change in mental state or emergence of new psychiatric symptoms
II. New thoughts or acts of violent self-harm.
III. New and persistent expressions of incompetency as a mother, such as being over-critical for not recognising what the baby needs.
 
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. All

Answer: (d).  All. Pharmacists should be able to recognise red flag signs and symptoms of PND and refer these patients immediately.
Red flag signs for postnatal depression:
 

  1. Recent significant change in mental state or emergence of new psychiatric symptoms;
  2. New thoughts or acts of violent self-harm;
  3. New and persistent expressions of incompetency as a mother, such as:
  • Estrangement from the infant;
  • Being over-critical for not recognising what the baby needs;
  • Saying that she/he is not doing things correctly;
  • Saying that she/he is not a good mother for her child;
  • Saying that the baby may be better cared for by someone else;
  • Saying that she/he is not providing good care for her baby or that other parents seem to be more able to look after their babies.
Patients with suicidal thoughts must be referred immediately to specialist perinatal mental health services.

Source: www.pharmacyexam.com
Citation: https://www.pharmaceutical-journal.com/cpd-and-learning/learning-article/postnatal-depression-recognition-and-diagnosis/20207360.article?firstPass=false


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25. Which of the following is a genetic condition in which abnormal growth of the heart muscle fibers occurs, leading to the thickening of these fibers?
 
a. Dilated cardiomyopathy
b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
d. Arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy


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25. Which of the following is a genetic condition in which abnormal growth of the heart muscle fibers occurs, leading to the thickening of these fibers?
 
a. Dilated cardiomyopathy
b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
d. Arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy

Answer: (b).  Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
 
1. Dilated cardiomyopathy: Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common form of the disease. It typically occurs in adults between the ages of 20 and 60 years.
The disease often starts in the left ventricle, but it can eventually also affect the right ventricle.
Dilated cardiomyopathy can affect the structure and function of the atria, too.
 
2. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic condition in which abnormal growth of the heart muscle fibers occurs, leading to the thickening or "hypertrophy" of these fibers. The thickening makes the chambers of the heart stiff and affects blood flow. It can also increase the risk of electrical disturbances, called arrhythmias.
According to the Children's Cardiomyopathy Foundation, it is the second most common form of cardiomyopathy in children. In about one-third of affected children, diagnosis occurs before the age of 1 year.
 
3. Restrictive cardiomyopathy:

Restrictive cardiomyopathy occurs when the tissues of the ventricles become rigid and cannot fill with blood properly. Eventually, it may lead to heart failure. It is more common in older adults and can result from infiltrative conditions — those involving the accumulation of abnormal substances in bodily tissues — such as amyloidosis.
 
4. Arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy:

In arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy, fibrotic and fatty tissue replaces the healthy tissues of the right ventricle, which may cause irregular heart rhythms. In some cases, this process can also occur in the left ventricle.
 
According to research in the journal Circulation Research, arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy increases the risk of sudden cardiac death, especially in young people and athletes. It is a hereditary genetic condition.
 
Symptoms:

In some cases, usually mild ones, there are no symptoms of cardiomyopathy.
 
However, as the condition progresses, a person may experience the following symptoms with varying degrees of severity:
 

  • fatigue
  • shortness of breath
  • swelling of the legs and ankles
  • heart palpitations
  • dizziness
  • fainting
 
Source: www.pharmacyexam.com



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26. Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Oscillopsia? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. It is the sensation that the surrounding environment is constantly in motion when it is, in fact, stationary.
b. It is usually a symptom of conditions that affect eye movement or the eye's ability to stabilize images, especially during movement.
c. It often links to types of ataxia, which is a condition that causes abnormal or involuntary eye movement.
d. The American Psychological Association describe oscillopsia as "the sensation of perceiving oscillating movement of the environment."
e. It is usually associated with neurological conditions, such as multiple sclerosis.


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26. Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Oscillopsia? [Select All That Apply]
 
a. It is the sensation that the surrounding environment is constantly in motion when it is, in fact, stationary.
b. It is usually a symptom of conditions that affect eye movement or the eye's ability to stabilize images, especially during movement.
c. It often links to types of ataxia, which is a condition that causes abnormal or involuntary eye movement.
d. The American Psychological Association describe oscillopsia as "the sensation of perceiving oscillating movement of the environment."
e. It is usually associated with neurological conditions, such as multiple sclerosis.

Answer: (a, b, d and e).  
 
Oscillopsia is the sensation that the surrounding environment is constantly in motion when it is, in fact, stationary. It usually occurs as a result of conditions that affect eye movement or alter how parts of the eye, inner ear, and brain stabilize images and maintain balance. The American Psychological Association describe oscillopsia as "the sensation of perceiving oscillating movement of the environment."
 
It often links to types of nystagmus (not ataxia), which is a condition that causes abnormal or involuntary eye movement.
 
Some of the most common conditions that experts have associated with oscillopsia include:
 
1. neurological conditions, such as seizures, multiple sclerosis, and superior oblique myokymia
2. brain or head injuries, especially bilateral vestibular cerebellar injuries
3. conditions, such as stroke, that affect the eye muscles or muscles around the eyes
4. conditions that affect or damage the inner ear, including Meniere's disease
5. conditions that cause brain inflammation, such as tumors or meningitis
 
Source: www.pharmacyexam.com


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